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#1
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posted to rec.boats
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On 4/1/2012 4:45 PM, thumper wrote:
On 3/31/2012 8:28 AM, BAR wrote: The right to keep and bear arms has implicit within it the abiltiy to defend ones self from aggressors. Otherwise, why would there be a 2nd amendment? It apparently had more to do with "a well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state" than individual self defense. "It apparently"? LOL, another one who makes it up as he goes along. |
#2
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posted to rec.boats
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On 4/1/2012 5:50 PM, JustWait wrote:
On 4/1/2012 4:45 PM, thumper wrote: On 3/31/2012 8:28 AM, BAR wrote: The right to keep and bear arms has implicit within it the abiltiy to defend ones self from aggressors. Otherwise, why would there be a 2nd amendment? It apparently had more to do with "a well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state" than individual self defense. "It apparently"? LOL, another one who makes it up as he goes along. It is apparent. You have a problem with a literal interpretation of the second amendment? It doesn't mention individual self defense, I'm not making that up. |
#3
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posted to rec.boats
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On 4/1/2012 9:31 PM, thumper wrote:
On 4/1/2012 5:50 PM, JustWait wrote: On 4/1/2012 4:45 PM, thumper wrote: On 3/31/2012 8:28 AM, BAR wrote: The right to keep and bear arms has implicit within it the abiltiy to defend ones self from aggressors. Otherwise, why would there be a 2nd amendment? It apparently had more to do with "a well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state" than individual self defense. "It apparently"? LOL, another one who makes it up as he goes along. It is apparent. You have a problem with a literal interpretation of the second amendment? It doesn't mention individual self defense, I'm not making that up. "It apparently? Followed by personal speculation, based on a strictly political agenda. |
#4
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posted to rec.boats
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On 4/1/2012 7:45 PM, JustWait wrote:
On 4/1/2012 9:31 PM, thumper wrote: On 4/1/2012 5:50 PM, JustWait wrote: On 4/1/2012 4:45 PM, thumper wrote: On 3/31/2012 8:28 AM, BAR wrote: The right to keep and bear arms has implicit within it the abiltiy to defend ones self from aggressors. Otherwise, why would there be a 2nd amendment? It apparently had more to do with "a well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state" than individual self defense. "It apparently"? LOL, another one who makes it up as he goes along. It is apparent. You have a problem with a literal interpretation of the second amendment? It doesn't mention individual self defense, I'm not making that up. "It apparently? Followed by personal speculation, based on a strictly political agenda. Why don't you look up the text of the second amendment. apparent: 1) Capable of being seen, or easily seen; open to view; visible to the eye; within sight or view. 2) Clear or manifest to the understanding; plain; evident; obvious; known; palpable; indubitable. |
#5
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posted to rec.boats
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#6
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posted to rec.boats
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#8
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posted to rec.boats
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In article , dump-on-
says... On 4/2/12 7:26 AM, BAR wrote: In , lid says... On 4/1/2012 5:50 PM, JustWait wrote: On 4/1/2012 4:45 PM, thumper wrote: On 3/31/2012 8:28 AM, BAR wrote: The right to keep and bear arms has implicit within it the abiltiy to defend ones self from aggressors. Otherwise, why would there be a 2nd amendment? It apparently had more to do with "a well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state" than individual self defense. "It apparently"? LOL, another one who makes it up as he goes along. It is apparent. You have a problem with a literal interpretation of the second amendment? It doesn't mention individual self defense, I'm not making that up. "..., the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed." Do you understand the meaning of "shall" and the meaning of "not". Do you understand that the amendment mentions "State" and "people" explicitly. The clause "the right of the people to keep and bear arms" has a specific and direct meaning. If it had been a right granted only to the States then they would not have added the second clause, explicitly identifying the people. Whatever it means, it surely doesn't mean you can chase down a kid who is carrying an iced tea and a bag of candy and shoot him to death, not without consequences, except maybe in Florida. Take your political agenda somewhere else asshole. |
#9
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posted to rec.boats
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On 4/2/12 7:56 AM, BAR wrote:
In article4qWdnVzZaqnuEuTSnZ2dnUVZ_oydnZ2d@earthlink .com, dump-on- says... On 4/2/12 7:26 AM, BAR wrote: In , lid says... On 4/1/2012 5:50 PM, JustWait wrote: On 4/1/2012 4:45 PM, thumper wrote: On 3/31/2012 8:28 AM, BAR wrote: The right to keep and bear arms has implicit within it the abiltiy to defend ones self from aggressors. Otherwise, why would there be a 2nd amendment? It apparently had more to do with "a well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state" than individual self defense. "It apparently"? LOL, another one who makes it up as he goes along. It is apparent. You have a problem with a literal interpretation of the second amendment? It doesn't mention individual self defense, I'm not making that up. "..., the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed." Do you understand the meaning of "shall" and the meaning of "not". Do you understand that the amendment mentions "State" and "people" explicitly. The clause "the right of the people to keep and bear arms" has a specific and direct meaning. If it had been a right granted only to the States then they would not have added the second clause, explicitly identifying the people. Whatever it means, it surely doesn't mean you can chase down a kid who is carrying an iced tea and a bag of candy and shoot him to death, not without consequences, except maybe in Florida. Take your political agenda somewhere else asshole. Just count me among the group of everyone who doesn't take you or your demands seriously, moron. |
#10
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posted to rec.boats
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On 4/2/2012 4:26 AM, BAR wrote:
In , lid says... On 4/1/2012 5:50 PM, JustWait wrote: On 4/1/2012 4:45 PM, thumper wrote: On 3/31/2012 8:28 AM, BAR wrote: The right to keep and bear arms has implicit within it the abiltiy to defend ones self from aggressors. Otherwise, why would there be a 2nd amendment? It apparently had more to do with "a well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state" than individual self defense. "It apparently"? LOL, another one who makes it up as he goes along. It is apparent. You have a problem with a literal interpretation of the second amendment? It doesn't mention individual self defense, I'm not making that up. "..., the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed." Do you understand the meaning of "shall" and the meaning of "not". Do you understand that the amendment mentions "State" and "people" explicitly. The clause "the right of the people to keep and bear arms" has a specific and direct meaning. If it had been a right granted only to the States then they would not have added the second clause, explicitly identifying the people. I didn't question that. Your original statement questioned why there would be a 2nd amendment at all if not for *self* defense. Explicit in the amendment itself is the answer... "a well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state". |
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