"NOYB" wrote in message
nk.net...

"****tard" wrote in message
ink.net...
NOYB wrote:

"****tard" wrote in message
ink.net...

NOYB wrote:


"John Gaquin" wrote in message
...


"****tard" wrote in message news:0Z5xc.5954


......the modern
inhabitants of Greece are referred to, in English as
Greeks. ONLY as Greeks. Period. Full stop. The end.

'Grecian' is ONLY an adjective, never a noun.



Ahhhhh. Another dumb**** liberal to enter the fray.

Nope. Not a liberal at all.


"Grecian" is another name for a "greek".

No, it isn't. "grecian" is an adjective, ONLY; it is
not a noun, and it NEVER refers to persons, only
things, e.g. "Ode to a Grecian Urn", a famous poem by
John Keats,


Putz. Read the King James version of the Bible. "Greeks" and
"Grecians"
are used interchangeably...and they're both NOUNS.

Douchebag. The English used in the King James version
of the bible is archaic, and the translations from
Hebrew and Greek are considered by modern bible
scholars to be terrible. That's why several other
versions of the bible have been developed.


BTW--the King James version of the Bible is a little more "famous"
than
your
"famous" poem by Keats.

It's also archaic, and to the best of my knowledge no
longer used by any major Christian denomination. There
are some lowbrow stupid fundamentalists who still use
it, because they like the wrong translations.

I suppose you favored the Cliff Notes over the real thing, eh? Or were
you
a Monarch Notes kid?

The more current bible translations are translations of the King James
version you nincompoop! If the King James version was a "wrong
translation", then what does that make each of the derivations of that
translation?




NOYB, don't waste your time with the moron. Everyone (well except for
****head) knows it is a noun and is used to refer to the people of ancient
Greece (or Greek Jews as used in the Bible), just as Romans is used to refer
to the ancient people of Rome.