On Mon, 27 Sep 2010 13:35:07 GMT, "Colonel Kurtz"
wrote:


On 26-Sep-2010, bpuharic wrote:

It most likely does not cost him 20% less to produce the coffee pot than
10
years ago.

you're right. the actual figure is 28%. american productivity has
increased 28% between 1997 and 2007.

Productivity does not mean more output per manhour, it means more output
with LESS manpower

mathematically the same. ever take a course in math?


- automation, imported cheaper materials and robotics
accellerate productivity. Output of labor has declined due to automation,
but the yield is of higher quality.

you can have EITHER a capital intensive economy OR a labor intensive
economy. you can not have both. we had full employment a few years
back remember? and we STILL had NO wage increases. we had 28%
increase in producdtivity in the last 10 years and STILL no wage
increases while the wealthly went up.

why only in the US?

answer: people like you who push the right wing kool aid


Change the laws to match
theirs. I do not know where you work in Semiconductors, but you are
being
paid less every year as you are stupid.

really? got proof? because i'm middle class. and the middle class
hasnt had a pay raise in 40 years. the wealthy had a 500% pay
increase

So do something useful to become "wealthy", whatever that is.

IOW you can't answer the question. yep. i knew it.




no other country saw such a disparity. how do you explain that? right
now your argument is taht the middle class is lazy, shiftless and
doesnt even deserve to be paid

why do the germans, french, etc., not have this problem even though we
work more hours than they do?

They are nationalistic; "Americans" buy "all Asian, all the time..." then
bitch about the nondescript economy.

notice he refuses to answer the question of why there's less of a
spread between the rich and middle classes in other countries?

he can't handle it. to him, the US is about the myth of the american
dream. he doesnt realize the weatlhy use that as an opiate precisely
for people like him