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"KLC Lewis" wrote in message
et... "Harry" wrote in message ... On 3/1/10 7:59 PM, Bruce wrote: On Mon, 01 Mar 2010 15:13:37 -0500, wrote: On 3/1/10 1:47 PM, Capt. JG wrote: wrote in message ... On Sun, 28 Feb 2010 18:20:42 -0800, Stephen Trapani wrote: Larry wrote: "Capt. wrote in easolutions: Well, if that were all it was, I wouldn't have an argument, but the context of his comment (all his previous and continuing diatribes about Zionism, etc.) makes that a weak argument. The words themselves mean little, but the context of them (especially of the particular speaker - any speaker) are highly important to that understanding. Without Zionism, America wouldn't be in the ****ty position it is in today, fighting Israel's wars for them. Sure they would. America is in the position of having to defend numerous democracies against numerous different tyrannies. Israel is only one of many. One of the best, but one of many. Iraqis and Afghans aren't near the threat to America that the now- nuclear-weapon-carrying-submarined Zionist state is. Every one of you Americans are now in range of Israeli nuclear weapons, thanks to the Germans who sold them 5 submarines for their delivery, any place on the planet. Woops. Slipping into kook mode again. Real democracies have never fought significant wars against each other and probably never will. Stephen Weren't both the United States (USA) and the Confederated States of America (CSA) democracies? and didn't they fight a war? Wasn't it significant? Cheers, Bruce (bruceinbangkokatgmaildotcom) Do you really consider the CSA a legitimate democracy in the sense that _all_ it's people were represented? Certainly, the blacks weren't. I don't think Lincoln did. The confederacy was an abomination, not a country. Certainly the CSA was a legitimate in 1861 as the Continental Congress was in 1775. Cheers, Bruce (bruceinbangkokatgmaildotcom) Nope. Women weren't granted the right to vote until 1920. Does this then mean that the United States was not a legitimate democracy until that date? Or were women "represented" by the vote of some man who was appointed their "guardian"? And if the latter, would not the same apply to those bound by slavery also? Excellent point! For it's time, it would have been considered legitimate. At least around the turn of the century. The Greeks started the silly business, there were some in the Middle East and elsewhere in the Middle Ages, and it went on from there. Throughout history, "Democracy" has rarely meant that ALL the people had a vote. This is not intended as an indictment of democracy, nor to support the idea that some people should be disenfranchised, but simply to point out a very basic fact. Very true. Based upon the very principles stated in the Declaration of Independence, the Confederate States of America was a separate and sovereign nation (or Confederation of Sovereign States) immediately upon declaring their status as a separate nation. Whether or not one approves of their form of government is irrelevent to the discussion. It is instructive to note, however, that states left the Union and joined the Confederacy by VOTING to do so. Pretty democratic if you ask me. Well, that's a tricky point... does voting in and of itself define a democracy? Take a limiting case... How about three people getting together and voting on murdering someone? Does that make their group a democracy? The first sentence here is a working definition I suppose, but it also seems limited somehow... http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Democracy And no, I am NOT defending slavery, segregation, racism, separatism or anything of the kind. KLC Lewis I don't know anyone in Wisconson who defends slavery, segregation (perhaps related to cheese), racism, separatism (see cheese reference).... -- "j" ganz @@ www.sailnow.com |
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