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Donal October 14th 04 11:26 PM


"Thom Stewart" wrote in message
...
Donal,

I hope you're satisfied! For a damned 1/4 of a point!? All this
differential and centrifugally, how does this Knowledge help a sailor to
ride the tides? That was the original question. Remember?


IIRC, I gave him my honest opinion.

I hope you're satisfied (g)


I'll admit that I'm pleased.


Now, I wonder if Scot did any Tide Riding while he has been on Vacation
Cruise?



It will be interesting to find out how his trip went. Does anybody know
when we can expect to hear from him?


Regards


Donal
--





Jeff Morris October 15th 04 01:56 AM

No, you never said it wasn't needed, but you did minimize its importance, claiming
that it can't be used alone to predict the tides. You said:

"Even worse, the site then goes on to use the _differential_ expression
to calculate the ratio of forces between the moon and sun!"

You even produced a bogus formula to support your claim that centrifugal force varies
across the Earth. This would predict a tidal force 65 times stronger than
differential gravity. If that isn't minimalizing differential gravity, I don't know
what is.

You demonstrated a further lack of understanding with:

If the moon stopped its rotation around the earth and the earth and
the moon was "falling" toward each other, there would still be two
bulges.


"YES but how big would they be (Hint: Smaller than the tides?)"

Actually, the tides would be the same.

One fundamental difference that we have is that you insist that taking centrifugal
force into account is the *only* way to look at the problem. As I've said a number of
times, centrifugal force is a "fictional force" that is only needed if you wish to
work in the accelerating Earth-centric reference frame. In fact, it is required that
there must be an alternate approach that does not use "fictional" forces.

It is quite easy to explain the tides without Centrifugal force - I mentioned the
approach in one of my first posts. There is a gravitational force pulling the Earth
and Moon together. This creates an acceleration such that the Earth is in free fall,
and no net force is felt at the Earth's center. However, there is a larger force on
the Moon side, and a smaller force on the far side. Since the average force has been
accounted for it must be subtracted from these two forces, and the smaller force ends
up being the same magnitude as the larger, but in the opposite direction. Hence, two
tidal bulges, both caused solely by gravity.

Another fundamental difference we have is that I agree with the traditional value for
the tidal force. Ignoring minor effects, the result predicted by Differential Gravity
(whether or not you use centrifugal force as part of the explanation) that is about 2
feet for both the near and far side bulges. (The Sun's contribution is about half of
the Moon's.) The land masses and shallow water tends to "pile up" the water to create
tides that are somewhat higher.

You, however, have claimed that the variation of the centrifugal force from the near
side to the far creates a force that dominates the tides. Your formula predicts a
force 65 times greater than the differential formula, which would seem to create tides
100 feet or more. Your explanation that land masses dampen these tides runs counter
to common experience. And, your formula predicts the Sun's contribution is only 1% of
the Moon's, which is clearly not the case.

As to your claim that the rotation around the barycenter "powers" the tides, well,
that's not true. In fact, even if the Earth and Moon were not rotating around the
barycenter, the tides would be the same, at least, until the Earth and Moon collided.
Frankly, it clear that you still do not accept the fact that CF is constant, exactly
equals the average gravitational force, and thus has no interesting contribution to
the tides.






"Nav" wrote in message ...
Now why try to distort the truth Jeff? I never ever said differential
gravity was not needed. I always said that it's the difference between
gravity and centrifugal forces. You do understand the connotations of
the DIFFERENCE between forces don't you? It does not mean that either
component is zero and actually implies that both are important. Shesh!
Still it's nice to see that you now agree that centrifugal forces should
not be ignored (as they are in the gravity only model). As I've said so
many times, the key to understanding is that the system rotates about
the barycenter and it is not just a gravity field problem. The rotation
actually provides the energy needed to power the daily tides -think
about it OK?

Cheers

Jeff Morris wrote:

"Nav" wrote in message

...

Jeff Morris wrote:

"Nav" wrote in message


...

F= mr omega^2. The distance from the barycenter to all points on earth
is NOT the same.

As the site expalins in the next paragraph, only the center of the Earth rotates
around the barycenter. Other points rotate around neighboring points.


Anyway, the site clearly shows in Fig. 2 that it is the
_DIFFERENCE_ between gravity and centrifugal force that makes the tides,
not gravity alone.

We never disagreed on this point.

HOLY BACKPEDAL!!!!!!



I'm not sure you really want to go back over this thread - your record is rather
shaky. Mine, however, has been quite consistent. Remember, I started by posting
sites with differing approaches to show that this problem can be looked at in
different ways. I then made my first comment about Centrifugal force with:

"Remember that Centrifugal Force may be a handy explanation, but it is a
"fictional force" that only appears real to an observer in an accelerating frame
of reference. Therefore, whenever it is used to explain something, there must
be another explanation that works in a non-accelerating frame."

but then you started claiming that differential gravity wasn't needed, I responded
with:

"Before I thought you were just arguing philosophically how much we should credit
centrifugal force, but now it appears you haven't really looked at the math at
all. The reason why "differential gravity" is invoked is because it represents
the differing pull of the Moon on differing parts of the Earth. Although this
force is all obviously towards the Moon, when you subtract off the centrifugal
force this is what is left. It is this differing pull that causes the two
tides."



a few posts later:
"Given that, your argument falls apart. The centrifugal force is exactly the
same on all points of the Earth, and (not by coincidence) is exactly opposite
the net gravitational force. What is left over is the differential gravity."

The bottom line here is that the tides are properly described by the differential
gravity equation. Centrifugal force can be used to explain how an outward force

can
be generated, but it is not needed, and it does not yield the equation that

describes
the tides.

Frankly, your the one who started this by claiming that the traditional

explanation of
tides is fundamentally flawed, and that the differential force normally cited is

not
what causes the tides. You really haven't produced any coherent evidence to

support
this claim.








Donal October 16th 04 01:03 AM


"Jeff Morris" wrote in message
...
"Donal" wrote in message
...
"Martin Baxter" wrote in message
Donal wrote:
So why does the moon seem to have a greater impact on the

tides?

Well duh! Remember F=G*(m'*m")/(d^2),


Emmm... Huh?

What the hell does that mean in English?

Did you not take physics in school?


Sadly, I didn't!

With hindsight, I suspect that I had a poor teacher who managed to make

the
subject appear much duller than it really is.


My high school physics teacher was possibly the worst teacher I ever had -

a
true nut case who shouldn't have been left alone with children.

Fortunately I
found much better teachers in college.



I've still got a suspicion that if we expand your equation, we will find
that the sun has a greater gravitational influence on the earth than the
moon does.


Yes, its does. The direct gravitational pull of the Sun is enormous, much
larger than the Moon's. However, the tides are caused by the difference

in pull
between the near side and the far side.


Sorry! This doesn't make any sense at all. How does the water on the far
side(of the earth) know that there is a different pull on the other side?
Even if you were correct, then there would be a high tide facing the moon, a
low tide at right angles to the moon, and a much lower *high* tide opposite
the moon. The reality is that the HW opposite the moon is only fractionally
smaller.

Centrigugal force explains why there is a high tide on the oppisite side of
the Earth from the moon - if you consider that the two bodies are rotating
around a common centre.

Since the Moon is a lot closer, that
difference is more significant. If you remember any calculus, you'd know

that
differentiating a 1/r^2 function yeilds a 1/r^3 function. The inverse

cube of
the Sun's distance becomes a tiny number compared to the Moon's. The net
result is that the Moon's effect on the tides is 2.2 stronger than the

Sun's.

Tsk...tsk.

The moon only has a stronger effect on tides because the Earth and Moon are
an orbiting pair.

Where's Gilligan when you need him?



Regards


Donal
--




Jeff Morris October 16th 04 02:46 AM


"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message

I've still got a suspicion that if we expand your equation, we will find
that the sun has a greater gravitational influence on the earth than the
moon does.


Yes, its does. The direct gravitational pull of the Sun is enormous, much
larger than the Moon's. However, the tides are caused by the difference

in pull
between the near side and the far side.


Sorry! This doesn't make any sense at all. How does the water on the far
side(of the earth) know that there is a different pull on the other side?


It doesn't "know" anything. Because the Earth and Moon are an "orbiting pair," as you
say, they are falling towards each other. Because the gravitational field varies, the
near side falls faster than the middle; and the far side falls slower. Hence, they
bulge out from the middle. That's actually all that is needed to explain the tides;
its so simple a lot of people have trouble getting it.



Even if you were correct, then there would be a high tide facing the moon, a
low tide at right angles to the moon, and a much lower *high* tide opposite
the moon. The reality is that the HW opposite the moon is only fractionally
smaller.


Well, you're right that there are low tides at right angles, but the way the math
works out the far side high tides are virtually the same. The magnitude of the
differing pull 4000 miles closer to the Moon is about the same as 4000 miles further
out. (Though I'm curious now just how much they do differ from each other ...)


Centrigugal force explains why there is a high tide on the oppisite side of
the Earth from the moon - if you consider that the two bodies are rotating
around a common centre.


OK. Centrifugal force is the explanation for children. Its kind of like the Tooth
Fairy of physics. The problem is that while CF can explain the "outward force" needed
for the far bulge, its still the differing gravitational force that defines the size
and shape of the tidal force. And CF isn't needed at all if you can accept the "free
fall) argument.



Since the Moon is a lot closer, that
difference is more significant. If you remember any calculus, you'd know

that
differentiating a 1/r^2 function yeilds a 1/r^3 function. The inverse

cube of
the Sun's distance becomes a tiny number compared to the Moon's. The net
result is that the Moon's effect on the tides is 2.2 stronger than the

Sun's.

Tsk...tsk.

The moon only has a stronger effect on tides because the Earth and Moon are
an orbiting pair.


The Earth and Sun are also an orbiting pair. There is no qualitative difference, only
quantitative.



Where's Gilligan when you need him?


Gilly is an educated man. I'm sure he agrees with me.



JAXAshby October 16th 04 03:25 AM

jeffie, run this by your wife before you respond again.

"Jeff Morris"
Date: 10/15/2004 9:46 PM Eastern Daylight Time
Message-id:


"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message

I've still got a suspicion that if we expand your equation, we will

find
that the sun has a greater gravitational influence on the earth than

the
moon does.

Yes, its does. The direct gravitational pull of the Sun is enormous,

much
larger than the Moon's. However, the tides are caused by the difference

in pull
between the near side and the far side.


Sorry! This doesn't make any sense at all. How does the water on the far
side(of the earth) know that there is a different pull on the other side?


It doesn't "know" anything. Because the Earth and Moon are an "orbiting
pair," as you
say, they are falling towards each other. Because the gravitational field
varies, the
near side falls faster than the middle; and the far side falls slower.
Hence, they
bulge out from the middle. That's actually all that is needed to explain the
tides;
its so simple a lot of people have trouble getting it.



Even if you were correct, then there would be a high tide facing the moon,

a
low tide at right angles to the moon, and a much lower *high* tide opposite
the moon. The reality is that the HW opposite the moon is only

fractionally
smaller.


Well, you're right that there are low tides at right angles, but the way the
math
works out the far side high tides are virtually the same. The magnitude of
the
differing pull 4000 miles closer to the Moon is about the same as 4000 miles
further
out. (Though I'm curious now just how much they do differ from each other
...)


Centrigugal force explains why there is a high tide on the oppisite side of
the Earth from the moon - if you consider that the two bodies are rotating
around a common centre.


OK. Centrifugal force is the explanation for children. Its kind of like the
Tooth
Fairy of physics. The problem is that while CF can explain the "outward
force" needed
for the far bulge, its still the differing gravitational force that defines
the size
and shape of the tidal force. And CF isn't needed at all if you can accept
the "free
fall) argument.



Since the Moon is a lot closer, that
difference is more significant. If you remember any calculus, you'd know

that
differentiating a 1/r^2 function yeilds a 1/r^3 function. The inverse

cube of
the Sun's distance becomes a tiny number compared to the Moon's. The

net
result is that the Moon's effect on the tides is 2.2 stronger than the

Sun's.

Tsk...tsk.

The moon only has a stronger effect on tides because the Earth and Moon are
an orbiting pair.


The Earth and Sun are also an orbiting pair. There is no qualitative
difference, only
quantitative.



Where's Gilligan when you need him?


Gilly is an educated man. I'm sure he agrees with me.











Jeff Morris October 16th 04 11:57 AM

It looks like tides are another topic where jaxie is in over his head.


"JAXAshby" wrote in message
...
jeffie, run this by your wife before you respond again.

"Jeff Morris"
Date: 10/15/2004 9:46 PM Eastern Daylight Time
Message-id:


"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message

I've still got a suspicion that if we expand your equation, we will

find
that the sun has a greater gravitational influence on the earth than

the
moon does.

Yes, its does. The direct gravitational pull of the Sun is enormous,

much
larger than the Moon's. However, the tides are caused by the difference
in pull
between the near side and the far side.

Sorry! This doesn't make any sense at all. How does the water on the far
side(of the earth) know that there is a different pull on the other side?


It doesn't "know" anything. Because the Earth and Moon are an "orbiting
pair," as you
say, they are falling towards each other. Because the gravitational field
varies, the
near side falls faster than the middle; and the far side falls slower.
Hence, they
bulge out from the middle. That's actually all that is needed to explain the
tides;
its so simple a lot of people have trouble getting it.



Even if you were correct, then there would be a high tide facing the moon,

a
low tide at right angles to the moon, and a much lower *high* tide opposite
the moon. The reality is that the HW opposite the moon is only

fractionally
smaller.


Well, you're right that there are low tides at right angles, but the way the
math
works out the far side high tides are virtually the same. The magnitude of
the
differing pull 4000 miles closer to the Moon is about the same as 4000 miles
further
out. (Though I'm curious now just how much they do differ from each other
...)


Centrigugal force explains why there is a high tide on the oppisite side of
the Earth from the moon - if you consider that the two bodies are rotating
around a common centre.


OK. Centrifugal force is the explanation for children. Its kind of like the
Tooth
Fairy of physics. The problem is that while CF can explain the "outward
force" needed
for the far bulge, its still the differing gravitational force that defines
the size
and shape of the tidal force. And CF isn't needed at all if you can accept
the "free
fall) argument.



Since the Moon is a lot closer, that
difference is more significant. If you remember any calculus, you'd know
that
differentiating a 1/r^2 function yeilds a 1/r^3 function. The inverse
cube of
the Sun's distance becomes a tiny number compared to the Moon's. The

net
result is that the Moon's effect on the tides is 2.2 stronger than the
Sun's.

Tsk...tsk.

The moon only has a stronger effect on tides because the Earth and Moon are
an orbiting pair.


The Earth and Sun are also an orbiting pair. There is no qualitative
difference, only
quantitative.



Where's Gilligan when you need him?


Gilly is an educated man. I'm sure he agrees with me.













Donal October 16th 04 12:45 PM


"Jeff Morris" wrote in message
...

"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message

I've still got a suspicion that if we expand your equation, we will

find
that the sun has a greater gravitational influence on the earth than

the
moon does.

Yes, its does. The direct gravitational pull of the Sun is enormous,

much
larger than the Moon's. However, the tides are caused by the

difference
in pull
between the near side and the far side.


Sorry! This doesn't make any sense at all. How does the water on the

far
side(of the earth) know that there is a different pull on the other

side?

It doesn't "know" anything. Because the Earth and Moon are an "orbiting

pair," as you
say, they are falling towards each other. Because the gravitational field

varies, the
near side falls faster than the middle; and the far side falls slower.


Very neat! However, your view seems to be a little bit simplistic.

Why should a solid fall more slowly than a fluid in a gravitational field?
If your theory was correct, then there wouldn't be any tide at all.


You seem to be ignoring momentum.


Regards

Donal
--




Scout October 16th 04 01:03 PM

Jeff,
Remember that I first posted that very same sentiment, and even provided a
graphic. I still believe that to be true, but have modified my internal
model, giving allowance for the centrifugal force. I'm not a physicist, but
the way I'm seeing it, there is a middle ground in this discussion. I'm
curious to know if you're discounting centrifugal force as a contributor to
the far bulge.
Scout


"Jeff Morris" wrote in message
...

"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message

I've still got a suspicion that if we expand your equation, we will
find
that the sun has a greater gravitational influence on the earth than
the
moon does.

Yes, its does. The direct gravitational pull of the Sun is enormous,
much
larger than the Moon's. However, the tides are caused by the
difference

in pull
between the near side and the far side.


Sorry! This doesn't make any sense at all. How does the water on the
far
side(of the earth) know that there is a different pull on the other side?


It doesn't "know" anything. Because the Earth and Moon are an "orbiting
pair," as you
say, they are falling towards each other. Because the gravitational field
varies, the
near side falls faster than the middle; and the far side falls slower.
Hence, they
bulge out from the middle. That's actually all that is needed to explain
the tides;
its so simple a lot of people have trouble getting it.



Even if you were correct, then there would be a high tide facing the
moon, a
low tide at right angles to the moon, and a much lower *high* tide
opposite
the moon. The reality is that the HW opposite the moon is only
fractionally
smaller.


Well, you're right that there are low tides at right angles, but the way
the math
works out the far side high tides are virtually the same. The magnitude
of the
differing pull 4000 miles closer to the Moon is about the same as 4000
miles further
out. (Though I'm curious now just how much they do differ from each other
...)


Centrigugal force explains why there is a high tide on the oppisite side
of
the Earth from the moon - if you consider that the two bodies are
rotating
around a common centre.


OK. Centrifugal force is the explanation for children. Its kind of like
the Tooth
Fairy of physics. The problem is that while CF can explain the "outward
force" needed
for the far bulge, its still the differing gravitational force that
defines the size
and shape of the tidal force. And CF isn't needed at all if you can
accept the "free
fall) argument.



Since the Moon is a lot closer, that
difference is more significant. If you remember any calculus, you'd
know

that
differentiating a 1/r^2 function yeilds a 1/r^3 function. The inverse

cube of
the Sun's distance becomes a tiny number compared to the Moon's. The
net
result is that the Moon's effect on the tides is 2.2 stronger than the

Sun's.

Tsk...tsk.

The moon only has a stronger effect on tides because the Earth and Moon
are
an orbiting pair.


The Earth and Sun are also an orbiting pair. There is no qualitative
difference, only
quantitative.



Where's Gilligan when you need him?


Gilly is an educated man. I'm sure he agrees with me.





Jeff Morris October 16th 04 02:43 PM

"Scout" wrote in message
...
Jeff,
Remember that I first posted that very same sentiment, and even provided a
graphic. I still believe that to be true, but have modified my internal
model, giving allowance for the centrifugal force. I'm not a physicist, but
the way I'm seeing it, there is a middle ground in this discussion. I'm
curious to know if you're discounting centrifugal force as a contributor to
the far bulge.
Scout


I've always said that Centrifugal Force can be used as part of the explanation, as
long as you end up with the same answer. There are several different ways of looking
at this, all valid. (I hope I can get through this without mangling the terms too
badly ...)

The problem with Centrifugal Force is that it is a "fictional force." It is only
needed if you work in a non-inertial, or accelerating reference frame. If you are in
a car going around a curve, your reference frame is accelerating towards the center of
the curve, and thus you feel a Centrifugal Force in the opposite direction. To an
outside observer, the CF doesn't exist, the only force is the car pulling the
passenger around the turn. The outside observer can analyze the situation completely
without invoking CF. (The passenger feels CF push him outward, the observer sees the
car pull the passenger inward.)

In the Earth-Moon system there is gravity pulling both the Earth and Moon around
curves. Because the gravity acts on all objects, we don't notice ourselves being
pulled around. The magnitude of the Centrifugal force is to small to notice, but in
that reference frame it exists. To the outside observer, we're just in freefall,
being pulled inward by gravity.

The problem with CF arises when you look carefully at the math. One pitfall Nav fell
into was trying to calculate CF as a function that varies with the distance to the
barycenter. However, all points on the Earth do not rotate around the barycenter,
only the center does. Other points describe the same circle around nearby points, so
that all points on Earth feel the same Centrifugal Force. (This is a tough concept to
explain in words; its easier to do it graphically. Consider a plate wobbling around a
point but with no rotation - each point on the plate describes the same circle.)

BTW, Nav provided two commonly used formulas, one for gravity and the other for CF.
Although they look quite different, you should appreciate that they are the same,
since the angular velocity is determined by the gravitational force. The CF will be
the same (with the opposite sign) as the gravitational pull at the Earth's center.

Since the CF is a constant force, it can't describe the two bulges in opposite
directions. It is gravity itself that varies with distance. The differential force
can be derived either by subtracting the average gravitational force which causes the
freefall at the center of the Earth, or it can be derived by adding the centrifugal
force. Since the two are the same, except for the sign, the math is identical.

So take your pick, either explanation works, and I'm sure there are others. However,
I hope you can appreciate that explanations like "gravity creates the inner bulge,
centrifugal force creates the outer bulge" makes physicists wince!







Scout October 16th 04 03:16 PM

"Jeff Morris" wrote
[snip]
So take your pick, either explanation works, and I'm sure there are
others. However,
I hope you can appreciate that explanations like "gravity creates the
inner bulge,
centrifugal force creates the outer bulge" makes physicists wince!


Yes, I can, as I've watched my physics teaching partner wince quite a bit
this week as we discussed this thread. He was quick to cover our whiteboard
with formulas and drawings. It's an interesting thread though, and
notwithstanding my oversimplified analogies, I've learned a lot from it. By
the way, I saw that same wince from a black history professor when I
suggested that the Civil War was fought to free the slaves, and then again
when I suggested to an ancient lit professor that The Odyssey has all the
earmarks of an Arnold Schwarzenegger movie. Probably explains why I like a
good fart joke.
Scout




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