On Jun 28, 6:44*am, purple wrote:
On 6/28/2010 12:22 AM, ? wrote:
They were never "immigrants" into any established country, because
there were no established governments in the region, just wandering
savage tribes who did not understand the concept of real estate or
land ownership.

This is stupid. They left Europe.

The American colonists were English citizens and they continued to
look to England for governance for 150 years. Well-to-do American
colonists travelled back and forth on business and pleasure.

The fact that the English governor of any of the 13 colonies was an
appointee began to annoy the colonists, who wanted equal represenation
in parliament back home in England.

The phrase, "all men are created equal," was never intended by the
Declaration of Independence Commitee to refer to *racial equality*, it
was about *political equality* back home in England, where other
wealthy English landowners *were* represented in parliament.

Redefining immigration as only
being into an "established country" is nonsensical.

Look up "immigrant" in your dictionary and you'll find that the word
didn't enter the English language until 1790, when the first
immigration law was written in the USA.

The purpose of America's first immigration law was to keep out
undesireables who were not free White men of good character like the
Founding Fathers.

I guess you also think the Holy Roman Empire was a monolithic entity.

I think that the HRE is outside the boundaries of the discussion of
immigration.

Mike asked where it all started. The real answer is probably when
hominids expanded outwards from the region of their origin in
Africa.

Or did you want to chase this back to a time before primates?

I don't want to chase this issue into any mental territory inhabited
by radical liberals who seek to change the USA from the land of
unrestricted capitalism to the land of socialist redistribution.