On 7-Mar-2005, Scott Weiser wrote:

The issue is whether the state has a legitimate interest in proscribing
unprotected sexual activity by someone who is known to be infected with an
STD. Why don't you address that question?

If deliberate transmission of a disease is already forbidden, there is
no need to outlaw any sexual activity.

If they use it differently than the textbook definition, they are misusing
the term, and thus their scientific credential are in question. I think it's
more likely that you are misusing the term, and that the scientists use the
proper terms.

They define their own textbook definition. Their scientific credentials
are not in question. Scientific definitions are not always the same as
those used by the general public. Scientists need specific meanings to
terms in order to ensure that communication is concise and precise.

Perhaps you are using the wrong word.

Perhaps you are full of ****.

You don't challenge any other items I posted. Is that an admission
that you've been lying and bull****ting all along? Or are you
too cowardly to stand up for your ridiculous claims?

Mike