This debate will go round in circles.

I used numbers directly from the US Treasury. You used numbers supplied by
the
Bush Administration.


No, I used actual numbers, you used a modified number from the US Treasury.
A number modified to reflect 1996 buying power.
If you wanted to compare your personal assets to debt ratio of different
years, would you apply the consumer price index in your calculations?

We should both be concerned that the numbers aren't reported using a
common
standard. Why doesn't the BEA site use the more favorable (to the
administration) numbers shown on the WH site? Or at least mention them?


The numbers aren't more favorable, you're comparing apples to oranges. If
you wanted to compare the buying power of different year GDP's you would use
your chart.

If you are looking for a PERCENTAGE of two different dollar figures from 2
different years you must use the actual dollars of both, OR apply your
modifier to each number (GDP and Debt).
Either way the percentages will be the same.

So we have each demonstrated that our numbers came from official govt
sources.
Your number proves your point. My number proves my point. Ergo, round in
circles.

Can you give me one good reason why the CPI should be towards the GDP when
computing the percentage of debt between different years?