Larry wrote:
"David L. Martel" wrote in
:

Article I sec.8 gives Congress the power to levy taxes. Taxes on
income
have been levied several times in US history. The 16th Amendment to
the Constitution passed in 1913 reaffirms Congress's right to collect
income taxes. The US Tariff Act of 1913 then levied an income tax. The
actual minutia is the IRS codes.

Dave M.



The 16th Amendment was never ratified, rendering it moot. Amendments
must be ratified, according to the constitution, protecting states
rights to NOT become slaves of the central government.

Um. The 16th Amendment WAS ratified. In 1913. Which you mention below.


The Supreme Court also pointed out that the 16th Amendment did NOT grant
the government any NEW taxes, such as the Income Tax on INDIVIDUAL
Americans.

It IS legal to tax income from GAINS of corporations. That's not in
question. What IS and has been since 1913 in question is there is no
law that gives the government the power to make UNAPPORTIONED taxes on
PERSONAL income....and never has been.

The IRS code is NOT US law.

Err, yes. Yes it is. It is part of the United States Code.

The IRS code is REGULATION by BUREAUCRATS
who were told they had this power to unapportioned taxes on individuals.
Because of a lack of enabling legislation, IRS code is null and void.
Bureaucrats cannot and SHOULD NOT have any power to enable anything
outside US CODE. If they can...we're DOOMED!

......Outside US Code? What the ****?


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* DanielSan -- alt.atheism #2226 *
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