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Nav October 13th 04 02:09 AM



Jeff Morris wrote:

OK, Nav, its clear you're not going to get this without some help. You keep
claiming the centrifugal force varies across the Earth. However, that is not
the case. Your assumption is that the Earth is rotating around the E-M
barycenter, and that because that is offset from the Earth center, the
centrifugal force is unbalanced. (Or more precisely, you claim the "r" in the
centrifugal force equation is different on the near and far sides of the Earth.)


I think it's you that does not understand that the rotation force is
based on the lunar cycle -28 days!

However, if we remove the daily rotation,


Great idea -not based in reality of course.

the Earth does not move around the
barycenter quite like you think.


Like I think?

Only the center of the Earth describes a
circle around the barycenter.


So the Earth does wobble (now you are getting really close to the whole
story -where harmonics of all the orbital periods give a complete
answer). Now, don't all points on the surface move similarly around the
barycenter and if they do, what is the difference in their orbital path
to that of a circle? Now as I see it, from the math, the differential
gravity model takes no account of this, exploiting the idea that the
orbital motion of every point on the surface is perfectly circular
around the moon (thereby allowing a cancellation of the centrigal
component), a point that you seem to be having a bit of trouble grasping.

By the way, the differential gravity idea first came from Newton. It's
correct as far as it goes but the orbital mechanics of the Earth-Moon
pair are more complicated (as far as I've been able to read, Newton only
saw the free falling body aspect in his tidal proposal). The Devil _is_
in the details and you can't ignore the system rotation. This really is
my last post on this. If you still haven't got the idea then I really
can't make it any clearer and you'll just have to ponder why University
Departments of Oceanographics (and NOAA etc.) all say that THE TIDES ON
EARTH are due to the difference between centrifugal and gravity forces.

Cheers



Jeff Morris October 13th 04 03:11 AM


"Nav" wrote in message
...


Jeff Morris wrote:

OK, Nav, its clear you're not going to get this without some help. You keep
claiming the centrifugal force varies across the Earth. However, that is

not
the case. Your assumption is that the Earth is rotating around the E-M
barycenter, and that because that is offset from the Earth center, the
centrifugal force is unbalanced. (Or more precisely, you claim the "r" in

the
centrifugal force equation is different on the near and far sides of the

Earth.)


I think it's you that does not understand that the rotation force is
based on the lunar cycle -28 days!

However, if we remove the daily rotation,


Great idea -not based in reality of course.


We are looking for the dominant effect - the daily rotation is not a contributor
to that. There are a variety of effects we're ignoring.


the Earth does not move around the
barycenter quite like you think.


Like I think?


OK, as you claim.


Only the center of the Earth describes a
circle around the barycenter.


So the Earth does wobble (now you are getting really close to the whole
story -where harmonics of all the orbital periods give a complete
answer). Now, don't all points on the surface move similarly around the
barycenter


No. Only the center of the Earth revolves around the barycenter. Other points
on the Earth revolve around other points nearby. Stop arguing and just work it
out with a model. If you "wobble" a disk, all points wobble the same way.
You're claiming that some points describe small circles, and some point describe
large circles, but that clearly can't happen unless you rotate the disk.

and if they do, what is the difference in their orbital path
to that of a circle?


All paths are the same. That's my point - stop talking and wobble a plate on
the table without rotating it. All points on it trace the same circle. Hold a
pencil on each side and look at the circles they trace. They all have the same
radius, and therefore the same centrifugal force.

Now as I see it, from the math, the differential
gravity model takes no account of this, exploiting the idea that the
orbital motion of every point on the surface is perfectly circular
around the moon (thereby allowing a cancellation of the centrigal
component), a point that you seem to be having a bit of trouble grasping.


There is no need to grasp it. You entire argument is different points feel
different rotation. But they don't - all points on the Earth feel the same
centrifugal force.

But your argument fails another test: The centrifugal force is "fictional" -
it is just a convenience to simplify some problems. The only real force at play
here is gravity, so any alternate approach must yield the same answer as a
"gravity only" solution.

By the way, the differential gravity idea first came from Newton. It's
correct as far as it goes but the orbital mechanics of the Earth-Moon
pair are more complicated (as far as I've been able to read, Newton only
saw the free falling body aspect in his tidal proposal). The Devil _is_
in the details and you can't ignore the system rotation. This really is
my last post on this. If you still haven't got the idea then I really
can't make it any clearer and you'll just have to ponder why University
Departments of Oceanographics (and NOAA etc.) all say that THE TIDES ON
EARTH are due to the difference between centrifugal and gravity forces.


As I've said, it's very easy to find numerous sites that scoff at the NOAA site
you've mentioned, its regularly cited as "bad science." And I don't deny that
there are a handful of sites that "handwave" that centrifugal force is the cause
of the second bulge, but there are dozens that refute that in great detail.
And virtually every published text supports my view.

And you still haven't responded to the obvious flaws in the formula you
proposed. If the centrifugal force from the Moon is as you claim, why does your
math show that the Sun's contribution is only 1% of the Moon's? You when to
great pains to show the math, but when I showed it was bogus you got very quiet
on that front.




Jeff Morris October 13th 04 04:35 PM

"Nav" wrote in message
...
....
If you still haven't got the idea then I really
can't make it any clearer and you'll just have to ponder why University
Departments of Oceanographics (and NOAA etc.) all say that THE TIDES ON
EARTH are due to the difference between centrifugal and gravity forces.


I have never claimed that you can't derive the tides by computing the difference
between gravitational pull and the centrifugal force. My point has been that
centrifugal force is constant across the Earth, and thus does not explain why
the bulges are in opposite directions. The centrifugal force is exactly
canceled by the average gravitational pull, and what is left over is the
differential force. Your claim has been that the centrifugal force varies
across the Earth, and that's what I've taken exception to.

You keep citing the NOAA page,
http://www.co-ops.nos.noaa.gov/restles3.html
So I went back and read that in detail. In it is the "disclaimer":

"While space does not permit here, it may be graphically demonstrated that, for
such a case of revolution without rotation as above enumerated, any point on the
earth will describe a circle which will have the same radius as the radius of
revolution of the center-of-mass of the earth around the barycenter. Thus, in
Fig. 1, the magnitude of the centrifugal force produced by the revolution of the
earth and moon around their common center of mass (G) is the same at point A or
B or any other point on or beneath the earth's surface. Any of these values is
also equal to the centrifugal force produced at the center-of-mass (C) by its
revolution around the barycenter."

it goes on to develop differential gravity:

"While the effect of this centrifugal force is constant for all positions on the
earth, the effect of the external gravitational force produced by another
astronomical body may be different at different positions on the earth because
the magnitude of the gravitational force exerted varies with the distance of the
attracting body."

In other words, this site actually agrees with what I have been saying.
Frankly I owe an apology to the site's author, since I maligned it without
reading carefully. In fact, although it leads with a provocative line about a
"little known aspect of the moon's orbital motion," and has a rather confusing
diagram, its basic approach is correct and in full agreement with my claim.
Apparently the site was actually changed at some point about two years ago
because of complaints on another board.





Nav October 13th 04 10:24 PM



Jeff Morris wrote:



In other words, this site actually agrees with what I have been saying.
Frankly I owe an apology to the site's author, since I maligned it without
reading carefully. In fact, although it leads with a provocative line about a
"little known aspect of the moon's orbital motion," and has a rather confusing
diagram, its basic approach is correct and in full agreement with my claim.
Apparently the site was actually changed at some point about two years ago
because of complaints on another board.


The site certainly agrees with me. Don't confuse rotation of the earth
with rotation about the system center. Here is the exact quote and it's
concurrance with my view is as clear as day:

"1. The Effect of Centrifugal Force. It is this little known aspect of
the moon's orbital motion which is responsible for one of the two force
components creating the tides. As the earth and moon whirl around this
common center-of-mass, the centrifugal force produced is always directed
away from the center of revolution. All points in or on the surface of
the earth acting as a coherent body acquire this component of
centrifugal force. And, since the center-of-mass of the earth is always
on the opposite side of this common center of revolution from the
position of the moon, the centrifugal force produced at any point in or
on the earth will always be directed away from the moon. This fact is
indicated by the common direction of the arrows (representing the
centrifugal force Fc) at points A, C, and B in Fig. 1, and the thin
arrows at these same points in Fig. 2."

Note the "one of the two forces".

Cheers


Nav October 13th 04 10:32 PM



Jeff Morris wrote:

"Nav" wrote in message
...
...

If you still haven't got the idea then I really
can't make it any clearer and you'll just have to ponder why University
Departments of Oceanographics (and NOAA etc.) all say that THE TIDES ON
EARTH are due to the difference between centrifugal and gravity forces.



I have never claimed that you can't derive the tides by computing the difference
between gravitational pull and the centrifugal force. My point has been that
centrifugal force is constant across the Earth, and thus does not explain why
the bulges are in opposite directions. The centrifugal force is exactly
canceled by the average gravitational pull, and what is left over is the
differential force. Your claim has been that the centrifugal force varies
across the Earth, and that's what I've taken exception to.


F= mr omega^2. The distance from the barycenter to all points on earth
is NOT the same. Anyway, the site clearly shows in Fig. 2 that it is the
_DIFFERENCE_ between gravity and centrifugal force that makes the tides,
not gravity alone. There really is no point going on any more is there?
For myself, I'm sick of repeating the same point over and over.

EOT

Cheers


You keep citing the NOAA page,
http://www.co-ops.nos.noaa.gov/restles3.html
So I went back and read that in detail. In it is the "disclaimer":

"While space does not permit here, it may be graphically demonstrated that, for
such a case of revolution without rotation as above enumerated, any point on the
earth will describe a circle which will have the same radius as the radius of
revolution of the center-of-mass of the earth around the barycenter. Thus, in
Fig. 1, the magnitude of the centrifugal force produced by the revolution of the
earth and moon around their common center of mass (G) is the same at point A or
B or any other point on or beneath the earth's surface. Any of these values is
also equal to the centrifugal force produced at the center-of-mass (C) by its
revolution around the barycenter."

it goes on to develop differential gravity:

"While the effect of this centrifugal force is constant for all positions on the
earth, the effect of the external gravitational force produced by another
astronomical body may be different at different positions on the earth because
the magnitude of the gravitational force exerted varies with the distance of the
attracting body."

In other words, this site actually agrees with what I have been saying.
Frankly I owe an apology to the site's author, since I maligned it without
reading carefully. In fact, although it leads with a provocative line about a
"little known aspect of the moon's orbital motion," and has a rather confusing
diagram, its basic approach is correct and in full agreement with my claim.
Apparently the site was actually changed at some point about two years ago
because of complaints on another board.






Jeff Morris October 13th 04 10:42 PM

Holy Back Pedal!!! Now you're claiming you agreed with me all along??? Just
22 hours ago we had this exchange:

Actually, applying it in this context is your problem. Centrifugal

acceleration
is constant, it doesn't vary across the surface of the Earth as you claim.
Remember, it doesn't even exist, its actually a reference frame shift.


It is a much larger force than differential gravity but you want to
ignore it? You are wrong Jeff, it does vary across the surface of the
earth Jeff -the Barycenter is at ~3/4 r! On the moon side it's ~1/7 as
large. Finally, (repeating yet again) it is the ____DIFFERENCE______
between inertial and gravity forces that make the tides. To say it's
only "differential gravity" (I shudder at that term) is clearly wrong -
this was a simple proof.



You actually provided the math that "proves" centrifugal force varies, and thus
causes tides much larger predicted by the accepted formula. Now you're
claiming you never meant that at all?


Right, Navie. Its the Constellation all over again.



"Nav" wrote in message
...


Jeff Morris wrote:



In other words, this site actually agrees with what I have been saying.
Frankly I owe an apology to the site's author, since I maligned it without
reading carefully. In fact, although it leads with a provocative line

about a
"little known aspect of the moon's orbital motion," and has a rather

confusing
diagram, its basic approach is correct and in full agreement with my claim.
Apparently the site was actually changed at some point about two years ago
because of complaints on another board.


The site certainly agrees with me. Don't confuse rotation of the earth
with rotation about the system center. Here is the exact quote and it's
concurrance with my view is as clear as day:

"1. The Effect of Centrifugal Force. It is this little known aspect of
the moon's orbital motion which is responsible for one of the two force
components creating the tides. As the earth and moon whirl around this
common center-of-mass, the centrifugal force produced is always directed
away from the center of revolution. All points in or on the surface of
the earth acting as a coherent body acquire this component of
centrifugal force. And, since the center-of-mass of the earth is always
on the opposite side of this common center of revolution from the
position of the moon, the centrifugal force produced at any point in or
on the earth will always be directed away from the moon. This fact is
indicated by the common direction of the arrows (representing the
centrifugal force Fc) at points A, C, and B in Fig. 1, and the thin
arrows at these same points in Fig. 2."

Note the "one of the two forces".

Cheers




Jeff Morris October 13th 04 11:11 PM


"Nav" wrote in message ...


F= mr omega^2. The distance from the barycenter to all points on earth
is NOT the same.


As the site expalins in the next paragraph, only the center of the Earth rotates
around the barycenter. Other points rotate around neighboring points.

Anyway, the site clearly shows in Fig. 2 that it is the
_DIFFERENCE_ between gravity and centrifugal force that makes the tides,
not gravity alone.


We never disagreed on this point. My issue has always been that since Centrifugal
Force is constant, it doesn't directly explain the two bulges. It is useful for
people who would have trouble with the seeming "negative gravity" of the far side
bulge, but it is also possible to fully describe the tides quite simply without
Centrifugal Force at all.

There really is no point going on any more is there?
For myself, I'm sick of repeating the same point over and over.


But your point seems to change on each post. First you claim CF varies, then you
claim to be in complete agreement with a site that says its constant. Now you're
saying it varies again. You provide your formula and challange me to work it out,
then never explain why it give bogus answers.

Constitution Constitution CONSTITUTION!!!!! opps .... constellation


EOT

Cheers


You keep citing the NOAA page,
http://www.co-ops.nos.noaa.gov/restles3.html
So I went back and read that in detail. In it is the "disclaimer":

"While space does not permit here, it may be graphically demonstrated that, for
such a case of revolution without rotation as above enumerated, any point on the
earth will describe a circle which will have the same radius as the radius of
revolution of the center-of-mass of the earth around the barycenter. Thus, in
Fig. 1, the magnitude of the centrifugal force produced by the revolution of the
earth and moon around their common center of mass (G) is the same at point A or
B or any other point on or beneath the earth's surface. Any of these values is
also equal to the centrifugal force produced at the center-of-mass (C) by its
revolution around the barycenter."

it goes on to develop differential gravity:

"While the effect of this centrifugal force is constant for all positions on the
earth, the effect of the external gravitational force produced by another
astronomical body may be different at different positions on the earth because
the magnitude of the gravitational force exerted varies with the distance of the
attracting body."

In other words, this site actually agrees with what I have been saying.
Frankly I owe an apology to the site's author, since I maligned it without
reading carefully. In fact, although it leads with a provocative line about a
"little known aspect of the moon's orbital motion," and has a rather confusing
diagram, its basic approach is correct and in full agreement with my claim.
Apparently the site was actually changed at some point about two years ago
because of complaints on another board.








Nav October 13th 04 11:44 PM



Jeff Morris wrote:

"Nav" wrote in message ...


F= mr omega^2. The distance from the barycenter to all points on earth
is NOT the same.



As the site expalins in the next paragraph, only the center of the Earth rotates
around the barycenter. Other points rotate around neighboring points.


Anyway, the site clearly shows in Fig. 2 that it is the
_DIFFERENCE_ between gravity and centrifugal force that makes the tides,
not gravity alone.



We never disagreed on this point.



HOLY BACKPEDAL!!!!!!

Cheers


Jeff Morris October 14th 04 01:00 AM


"Nav" wrote in message ...
Jeff Morris wrote:
"Nav" wrote in message

...
F= mr omega^2. The distance from the barycenter to all points on earth
is NOT the same.


As the site expalins in the next paragraph, only the center of the Earth rotates
around the barycenter. Other points rotate around neighboring points.

Anyway, the site clearly shows in Fig. 2 that it is the
_DIFFERENCE_ between gravity and centrifugal force that makes the tides,
not gravity alone.


We never disagreed on this point.


HOLY BACKPEDAL!!!!!!


I'm not sure you really want to go back over this thread - your record is rather
shaky. Mine, however, has been quite consistent. Remember, I started by posting
sites with differing approaches to show that this problem can be looked at in
different ways. I then made my first comment about Centrifugal force with:

"Remember that Centrifugal Force may be a handy explanation, but it is a
"fictional force" that only appears real to an observer in an accelerating frame
of reference. Therefore, whenever it is used to explain something, there must
be another explanation that works in a non-accelerating frame."

but then you started claiming that differential gravity wasn't needed, I responded
with:

"Before I thought you were just arguing philosophically how much we should credit
centrifugal force, but now it appears you haven't really looked at the math at
all. The reason why "differential gravity" is invoked is because it represents
the differing pull of the Moon on differing parts of the Earth. Although this
force is all obviously towards the Moon, when you subtract off the centrifugal
force this is what is left. It is this differing pull that causes the two
tides."

or, in other words, exactly what I just said above.

a few posts later:
"Given that, your argument falls apart. The centrifugal force is exactly the
same on all points of the Earth, and (not by coincidence) is exactly opposite
the net gravitational force. What is left over is the differential gravity."

The bottom line here is that the tides are properly described by the differential
gravity equation. Centrifugal force can be used to explain how an outward force can
be generated, but it is not needed, and it does not yield the equation that describes
the tides.

Frankly, your the one who started this by claiming that the traditional explanation of
tides is fundamentally flawed, and that the differential force normally cited is not
what causes the tides. You really haven't produced any coherent evidence to support
this claim.





Nav October 14th 04 10:54 PM

Now why try to distort the truth Jeff? I never ever said differential
gravity was not needed. I always said that it's the difference between
gravity and centrifugal forces. You do understand the connotations of
the DIFFERENCE between forces don't you? It does not mean that either
component is zero and actually implies that both are important. Shesh!
Still it's nice to see that you now agree that centrifugal forces should
not be ignored (as they are in the gravity only model). As I've said so
many times, the key to understanding is that the system rotates about
the barycenter and it is not just a gravity field problem. The rotation
actually provides the energy needed to power the daily tides -think
about it OK?

Cheers

Jeff Morris wrote:

"Nav" wrote in message ...

Jeff Morris wrote:

"Nav" wrote in message


...

F= mr omega^2. The distance from the barycenter to all points on earth
is NOT the same.

As the site expalins in the next paragraph, only the center of the Earth rotates
around the barycenter. Other points rotate around neighboring points.


Anyway, the site clearly shows in Fig. 2 that it is the
_DIFFERENCE_ between gravity and centrifugal force that makes the tides,
not gravity alone.

We never disagreed on this point.


HOLY BACKPEDAL!!!!!!



I'm not sure you really want to go back over this thread - your record is rather
shaky. Mine, however, has been quite consistent. Remember, I started by posting
sites with differing approaches to show that this problem can be looked at in
different ways. I then made my first comment about Centrifugal force with:

"Remember that Centrifugal Force may be a handy explanation, but it is a
"fictional force" that only appears real to an observer in an accelerating frame
of reference. Therefore, whenever it is used to explain something, there must
be another explanation that works in a non-accelerating frame."

but then you started claiming that differential gravity wasn't needed, I responded
with:

"Before I thought you were just arguing philosophically how much we should credit
centrifugal force, but now it appears you haven't really looked at the math at
all. The reason why "differential gravity" is invoked is because it represents
the differing pull of the Moon on differing parts of the Earth. Although this
force is all obviously towards the Moon, when you subtract off the centrifugal
force this is what is left. It is this differing pull that causes the two
tides."



a few posts later:
"Given that, your argument falls apart. The centrifugal force is exactly the
same on all points of the Earth, and (not by coincidence) is exactly opposite
the net gravitational force. What is left over is the differential gravity."

The bottom line here is that the tides are properly described by the differential
gravity equation. Centrifugal force can be used to explain how an outward force can
be generated, but it is not needed, and it does not yield the equation that describes
the tides.

Frankly, your the one who started this by claiming that the traditional explanation of
tides is fundamentally flawed, and that the differential force normally cited is not
what causes the tides. You really haven't produced any coherent evidence to support
this claim.






Donal October 14th 04 11:26 PM


"Thom Stewart" wrote in message
...
Donal,

I hope you're satisfied! For a damned 1/4 of a point!? All this
differential and centrifugally, how does this Knowledge help a sailor to
ride the tides? That was the original question. Remember?


IIRC, I gave him my honest opinion.

I hope you're satisfied (g)


I'll admit that I'm pleased.


Now, I wonder if Scot did any Tide Riding while he has been on Vacation
Cruise?



It will be interesting to find out how his trip went. Does anybody know
when we can expect to hear from him?


Regards


Donal
--





Jeff Morris October 15th 04 01:56 AM

No, you never said it wasn't needed, but you did minimize its importance, claiming
that it can't be used alone to predict the tides. You said:

"Even worse, the site then goes on to use the _differential_ expression
to calculate the ratio of forces between the moon and sun!"

You even produced a bogus formula to support your claim that centrifugal force varies
across the Earth. This would predict a tidal force 65 times stronger than
differential gravity. If that isn't minimalizing differential gravity, I don't know
what is.

You demonstrated a further lack of understanding with:

If the moon stopped its rotation around the earth and the earth and
the moon was "falling" toward each other, there would still be two
bulges.


"YES but how big would they be (Hint: Smaller than the tides?)"

Actually, the tides would be the same.

One fundamental difference that we have is that you insist that taking centrifugal
force into account is the *only* way to look at the problem. As I've said a number of
times, centrifugal force is a "fictional force" that is only needed if you wish to
work in the accelerating Earth-centric reference frame. In fact, it is required that
there must be an alternate approach that does not use "fictional" forces.

It is quite easy to explain the tides without Centrifugal force - I mentioned the
approach in one of my first posts. There is a gravitational force pulling the Earth
and Moon together. This creates an acceleration such that the Earth is in free fall,
and no net force is felt at the Earth's center. However, there is a larger force on
the Moon side, and a smaller force on the far side. Since the average force has been
accounted for it must be subtracted from these two forces, and the smaller force ends
up being the same magnitude as the larger, but in the opposite direction. Hence, two
tidal bulges, both caused solely by gravity.

Another fundamental difference we have is that I agree with the traditional value for
the tidal force. Ignoring minor effects, the result predicted by Differential Gravity
(whether or not you use centrifugal force as part of the explanation) that is about 2
feet for both the near and far side bulges. (The Sun's contribution is about half of
the Moon's.) The land masses and shallow water tends to "pile up" the water to create
tides that are somewhat higher.

You, however, have claimed that the variation of the centrifugal force from the near
side to the far creates a force that dominates the tides. Your formula predicts a
force 65 times greater than the differential formula, which would seem to create tides
100 feet or more. Your explanation that land masses dampen these tides runs counter
to common experience. And, your formula predicts the Sun's contribution is only 1% of
the Moon's, which is clearly not the case.

As to your claim that the rotation around the barycenter "powers" the tides, well,
that's not true. In fact, even if the Earth and Moon were not rotating around the
barycenter, the tides would be the same, at least, until the Earth and Moon collided.
Frankly, it clear that you still do not accept the fact that CF is constant, exactly
equals the average gravitational force, and thus has no interesting contribution to
the tides.






"Nav" wrote in message ...
Now why try to distort the truth Jeff? I never ever said differential
gravity was not needed. I always said that it's the difference between
gravity and centrifugal forces. You do understand the connotations of
the DIFFERENCE between forces don't you? It does not mean that either
component is zero and actually implies that both are important. Shesh!
Still it's nice to see that you now agree that centrifugal forces should
not be ignored (as they are in the gravity only model). As I've said so
many times, the key to understanding is that the system rotates about
the barycenter and it is not just a gravity field problem. The rotation
actually provides the energy needed to power the daily tides -think
about it OK?

Cheers

Jeff Morris wrote:

"Nav" wrote in message

...

Jeff Morris wrote:

"Nav" wrote in message


...

F= mr omega^2. The distance from the barycenter to all points on earth
is NOT the same.

As the site expalins in the next paragraph, only the center of the Earth rotates
around the barycenter. Other points rotate around neighboring points.


Anyway, the site clearly shows in Fig. 2 that it is the
_DIFFERENCE_ between gravity and centrifugal force that makes the tides,
not gravity alone.

We never disagreed on this point.

HOLY BACKPEDAL!!!!!!



I'm not sure you really want to go back over this thread - your record is rather
shaky. Mine, however, has been quite consistent. Remember, I started by posting
sites with differing approaches to show that this problem can be looked at in
different ways. I then made my first comment about Centrifugal force with:

"Remember that Centrifugal Force may be a handy explanation, but it is a
"fictional force" that only appears real to an observer in an accelerating frame
of reference. Therefore, whenever it is used to explain something, there must
be another explanation that works in a non-accelerating frame."

but then you started claiming that differential gravity wasn't needed, I responded
with:

"Before I thought you were just arguing philosophically how much we should credit
centrifugal force, but now it appears you haven't really looked at the math at
all. The reason why "differential gravity" is invoked is because it represents
the differing pull of the Moon on differing parts of the Earth. Although this
force is all obviously towards the Moon, when you subtract off the centrifugal
force this is what is left. It is this differing pull that causes the two
tides."



a few posts later:
"Given that, your argument falls apart. The centrifugal force is exactly the
same on all points of the Earth, and (not by coincidence) is exactly opposite
the net gravitational force. What is left over is the differential gravity."

The bottom line here is that the tides are properly described by the differential
gravity equation. Centrifugal force can be used to explain how an outward force

can
be generated, but it is not needed, and it does not yield the equation that

describes
the tides.

Frankly, your the one who started this by claiming that the traditional

explanation of
tides is fundamentally flawed, and that the differential force normally cited is

not
what causes the tides. You really haven't produced any coherent evidence to

support
this claim.








Donal October 16th 04 01:03 AM


"Jeff Morris" wrote in message
...
"Donal" wrote in message
...
"Martin Baxter" wrote in message
Donal wrote:
So why does the moon seem to have a greater impact on the

tides?

Well duh! Remember F=G*(m'*m")/(d^2),


Emmm... Huh?

What the hell does that mean in English?

Did you not take physics in school?


Sadly, I didn't!

With hindsight, I suspect that I had a poor teacher who managed to make

the
subject appear much duller than it really is.


My high school physics teacher was possibly the worst teacher I ever had -

a
true nut case who shouldn't have been left alone with children.

Fortunately I
found much better teachers in college.



I've still got a suspicion that if we expand your equation, we will find
that the sun has a greater gravitational influence on the earth than the
moon does.


Yes, its does. The direct gravitational pull of the Sun is enormous, much
larger than the Moon's. However, the tides are caused by the difference

in pull
between the near side and the far side.


Sorry! This doesn't make any sense at all. How does the water on the far
side(of the earth) know that there is a different pull on the other side?
Even if you were correct, then there would be a high tide facing the moon, a
low tide at right angles to the moon, and a much lower *high* tide opposite
the moon. The reality is that the HW opposite the moon is only fractionally
smaller.

Centrigugal force explains why there is a high tide on the oppisite side of
the Earth from the moon - if you consider that the two bodies are rotating
around a common centre.

Since the Moon is a lot closer, that
difference is more significant. If you remember any calculus, you'd know

that
differentiating a 1/r^2 function yeilds a 1/r^3 function. The inverse

cube of
the Sun's distance becomes a tiny number compared to the Moon's. The net
result is that the Moon's effect on the tides is 2.2 stronger than the

Sun's.

Tsk...tsk.

The moon only has a stronger effect on tides because the Earth and Moon are
an orbiting pair.

Where's Gilligan when you need him?



Regards


Donal
--




Jeff Morris October 16th 04 02:46 AM


"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message

I've still got a suspicion that if we expand your equation, we will find
that the sun has a greater gravitational influence on the earth than the
moon does.


Yes, its does. The direct gravitational pull of the Sun is enormous, much
larger than the Moon's. However, the tides are caused by the difference

in pull
between the near side and the far side.


Sorry! This doesn't make any sense at all. How does the water on the far
side(of the earth) know that there is a different pull on the other side?


It doesn't "know" anything. Because the Earth and Moon are an "orbiting pair," as you
say, they are falling towards each other. Because the gravitational field varies, the
near side falls faster than the middle; and the far side falls slower. Hence, they
bulge out from the middle. That's actually all that is needed to explain the tides;
its so simple a lot of people have trouble getting it.



Even if you were correct, then there would be a high tide facing the moon, a
low tide at right angles to the moon, and a much lower *high* tide opposite
the moon. The reality is that the HW opposite the moon is only fractionally
smaller.


Well, you're right that there are low tides at right angles, but the way the math
works out the far side high tides are virtually the same. The magnitude of the
differing pull 4000 miles closer to the Moon is about the same as 4000 miles further
out. (Though I'm curious now just how much they do differ from each other ...)


Centrigugal force explains why there is a high tide on the oppisite side of
the Earth from the moon - if you consider that the two bodies are rotating
around a common centre.


OK. Centrifugal force is the explanation for children. Its kind of like the Tooth
Fairy of physics. The problem is that while CF can explain the "outward force" needed
for the far bulge, its still the differing gravitational force that defines the size
and shape of the tidal force. And CF isn't needed at all if you can accept the "free
fall) argument.



Since the Moon is a lot closer, that
difference is more significant. If you remember any calculus, you'd know

that
differentiating a 1/r^2 function yeilds a 1/r^3 function. The inverse

cube of
the Sun's distance becomes a tiny number compared to the Moon's. The net
result is that the Moon's effect on the tides is 2.2 stronger than the

Sun's.

Tsk...tsk.

The moon only has a stronger effect on tides because the Earth and Moon are
an orbiting pair.


The Earth and Sun are also an orbiting pair. There is no qualitative difference, only
quantitative.



Where's Gilligan when you need him?


Gilly is an educated man. I'm sure he agrees with me.



JAXAshby October 16th 04 03:25 AM

jeffie, run this by your wife before you respond again.

"Jeff Morris"
Date: 10/15/2004 9:46 PM Eastern Daylight Time
Message-id:


"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message

I've still got a suspicion that if we expand your equation, we will

find
that the sun has a greater gravitational influence on the earth than

the
moon does.

Yes, its does. The direct gravitational pull of the Sun is enormous,

much
larger than the Moon's. However, the tides are caused by the difference

in pull
between the near side and the far side.


Sorry! This doesn't make any sense at all. How does the water on the far
side(of the earth) know that there is a different pull on the other side?


It doesn't "know" anything. Because the Earth and Moon are an "orbiting
pair," as you
say, they are falling towards each other. Because the gravitational field
varies, the
near side falls faster than the middle; and the far side falls slower.
Hence, they
bulge out from the middle. That's actually all that is needed to explain the
tides;
its so simple a lot of people have trouble getting it.



Even if you were correct, then there would be a high tide facing the moon,

a
low tide at right angles to the moon, and a much lower *high* tide opposite
the moon. The reality is that the HW opposite the moon is only

fractionally
smaller.


Well, you're right that there are low tides at right angles, but the way the
math
works out the far side high tides are virtually the same. The magnitude of
the
differing pull 4000 miles closer to the Moon is about the same as 4000 miles
further
out. (Though I'm curious now just how much they do differ from each other
...)


Centrigugal force explains why there is a high tide on the oppisite side of
the Earth from the moon - if you consider that the two bodies are rotating
around a common centre.


OK. Centrifugal force is the explanation for children. Its kind of like the
Tooth
Fairy of physics. The problem is that while CF can explain the "outward
force" needed
for the far bulge, its still the differing gravitational force that defines
the size
and shape of the tidal force. And CF isn't needed at all if you can accept
the "free
fall) argument.



Since the Moon is a lot closer, that
difference is more significant. If you remember any calculus, you'd know

that
differentiating a 1/r^2 function yeilds a 1/r^3 function. The inverse

cube of
the Sun's distance becomes a tiny number compared to the Moon's. The

net
result is that the Moon's effect on the tides is 2.2 stronger than the

Sun's.

Tsk...tsk.

The moon only has a stronger effect on tides because the Earth and Moon are
an orbiting pair.


The Earth and Sun are also an orbiting pair. There is no qualitative
difference, only
quantitative.



Where's Gilligan when you need him?


Gilly is an educated man. I'm sure he agrees with me.











Jeff Morris October 16th 04 11:57 AM

It looks like tides are another topic where jaxie is in over his head.


"JAXAshby" wrote in message
...
jeffie, run this by your wife before you respond again.

"Jeff Morris"
Date: 10/15/2004 9:46 PM Eastern Daylight Time
Message-id:


"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message

I've still got a suspicion that if we expand your equation, we will

find
that the sun has a greater gravitational influence on the earth than

the
moon does.

Yes, its does. The direct gravitational pull of the Sun is enormous,

much
larger than the Moon's. However, the tides are caused by the difference
in pull
between the near side and the far side.

Sorry! This doesn't make any sense at all. How does the water on the far
side(of the earth) know that there is a different pull on the other side?


It doesn't "know" anything. Because the Earth and Moon are an "orbiting
pair," as you
say, they are falling towards each other. Because the gravitational field
varies, the
near side falls faster than the middle; and the far side falls slower.
Hence, they
bulge out from the middle. That's actually all that is needed to explain the
tides;
its so simple a lot of people have trouble getting it.



Even if you were correct, then there would be a high tide facing the moon,

a
low tide at right angles to the moon, and a much lower *high* tide opposite
the moon. The reality is that the HW opposite the moon is only

fractionally
smaller.


Well, you're right that there are low tides at right angles, but the way the
math
works out the far side high tides are virtually the same. The magnitude of
the
differing pull 4000 miles closer to the Moon is about the same as 4000 miles
further
out. (Though I'm curious now just how much they do differ from each other
...)


Centrigugal force explains why there is a high tide on the oppisite side of
the Earth from the moon - if you consider that the two bodies are rotating
around a common centre.


OK. Centrifugal force is the explanation for children. Its kind of like the
Tooth
Fairy of physics. The problem is that while CF can explain the "outward
force" needed
for the far bulge, its still the differing gravitational force that defines
the size
and shape of the tidal force. And CF isn't needed at all if you can accept
the "free
fall) argument.



Since the Moon is a lot closer, that
difference is more significant. If you remember any calculus, you'd know
that
differentiating a 1/r^2 function yeilds a 1/r^3 function. The inverse
cube of
the Sun's distance becomes a tiny number compared to the Moon's. The

net
result is that the Moon's effect on the tides is 2.2 stronger than the
Sun's.

Tsk...tsk.

The moon only has a stronger effect on tides because the Earth and Moon are
an orbiting pair.


The Earth and Sun are also an orbiting pair. There is no qualitative
difference, only
quantitative.



Where's Gilligan when you need him?


Gilly is an educated man. I'm sure he agrees with me.













Donal October 16th 04 12:45 PM


"Jeff Morris" wrote in message
...

"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message

I've still got a suspicion that if we expand your equation, we will

find
that the sun has a greater gravitational influence on the earth than

the
moon does.

Yes, its does. The direct gravitational pull of the Sun is enormous,

much
larger than the Moon's. However, the tides are caused by the

difference
in pull
between the near side and the far side.


Sorry! This doesn't make any sense at all. How does the water on the

far
side(of the earth) know that there is a different pull on the other

side?

It doesn't "know" anything. Because the Earth and Moon are an "orbiting

pair," as you
say, they are falling towards each other. Because the gravitational field

varies, the
near side falls faster than the middle; and the far side falls slower.


Very neat! However, your view seems to be a little bit simplistic.

Why should a solid fall more slowly than a fluid in a gravitational field?
If your theory was correct, then there wouldn't be any tide at all.


You seem to be ignoring momentum.


Regards

Donal
--




Scout October 16th 04 01:03 PM

Jeff,
Remember that I first posted that very same sentiment, and even provided a
graphic. I still believe that to be true, but have modified my internal
model, giving allowance for the centrifugal force. I'm not a physicist, but
the way I'm seeing it, there is a middle ground in this discussion. I'm
curious to know if you're discounting centrifugal force as a contributor to
the far bulge.
Scout


"Jeff Morris" wrote in message
...

"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message

I've still got a suspicion that if we expand your equation, we will
find
that the sun has a greater gravitational influence on the earth than
the
moon does.

Yes, its does. The direct gravitational pull of the Sun is enormous,
much
larger than the Moon's. However, the tides are caused by the
difference

in pull
between the near side and the far side.


Sorry! This doesn't make any sense at all. How does the water on the
far
side(of the earth) know that there is a different pull on the other side?


It doesn't "know" anything. Because the Earth and Moon are an "orbiting
pair," as you
say, they are falling towards each other. Because the gravitational field
varies, the
near side falls faster than the middle; and the far side falls slower.
Hence, they
bulge out from the middle. That's actually all that is needed to explain
the tides;
its so simple a lot of people have trouble getting it.



Even if you were correct, then there would be a high tide facing the
moon, a
low tide at right angles to the moon, and a much lower *high* tide
opposite
the moon. The reality is that the HW opposite the moon is only
fractionally
smaller.


Well, you're right that there are low tides at right angles, but the way
the math
works out the far side high tides are virtually the same. The magnitude
of the
differing pull 4000 miles closer to the Moon is about the same as 4000
miles further
out. (Though I'm curious now just how much they do differ from each other
...)


Centrigugal force explains why there is a high tide on the oppisite side
of
the Earth from the moon - if you consider that the two bodies are
rotating
around a common centre.


OK. Centrifugal force is the explanation for children. Its kind of like
the Tooth
Fairy of physics. The problem is that while CF can explain the "outward
force" needed
for the far bulge, its still the differing gravitational force that
defines the size
and shape of the tidal force. And CF isn't needed at all if you can
accept the "free
fall) argument.



Since the Moon is a lot closer, that
difference is more significant. If you remember any calculus, you'd
know

that
differentiating a 1/r^2 function yeilds a 1/r^3 function. The inverse

cube of
the Sun's distance becomes a tiny number compared to the Moon's. The
net
result is that the Moon's effect on the tides is 2.2 stronger than the

Sun's.

Tsk...tsk.

The moon only has a stronger effect on tides because the Earth and Moon
are
an orbiting pair.


The Earth and Sun are also an orbiting pair. There is no qualitative
difference, only
quantitative.



Where's Gilligan when you need him?


Gilly is an educated man. I'm sure he agrees with me.





Jeff Morris October 16th 04 02:43 PM

"Scout" wrote in message
...
Jeff,
Remember that I first posted that very same sentiment, and even provided a
graphic. I still believe that to be true, but have modified my internal
model, giving allowance for the centrifugal force. I'm not a physicist, but
the way I'm seeing it, there is a middle ground in this discussion. I'm
curious to know if you're discounting centrifugal force as a contributor to
the far bulge.
Scout


I've always said that Centrifugal Force can be used as part of the explanation, as
long as you end up with the same answer. There are several different ways of looking
at this, all valid. (I hope I can get through this without mangling the terms too
badly ...)

The problem with Centrifugal Force is that it is a "fictional force." It is only
needed if you work in a non-inertial, or accelerating reference frame. If you are in
a car going around a curve, your reference frame is accelerating towards the center of
the curve, and thus you feel a Centrifugal Force in the opposite direction. To an
outside observer, the CF doesn't exist, the only force is the car pulling the
passenger around the turn. The outside observer can analyze the situation completely
without invoking CF. (The passenger feels CF push him outward, the observer sees the
car pull the passenger inward.)

In the Earth-Moon system there is gravity pulling both the Earth and Moon around
curves. Because the gravity acts on all objects, we don't notice ourselves being
pulled around. The magnitude of the Centrifugal force is to small to notice, but in
that reference frame it exists. To the outside observer, we're just in freefall,
being pulled inward by gravity.

The problem with CF arises when you look carefully at the math. One pitfall Nav fell
into was trying to calculate CF as a function that varies with the distance to the
barycenter. However, all points on the Earth do not rotate around the barycenter,
only the center does. Other points describe the same circle around nearby points, so
that all points on Earth feel the same Centrifugal Force. (This is a tough concept to
explain in words; its easier to do it graphically. Consider a plate wobbling around a
point but with no rotation - each point on the plate describes the same circle.)

BTW, Nav provided two commonly used formulas, one for gravity and the other for CF.
Although they look quite different, you should appreciate that they are the same,
since the angular velocity is determined by the gravitational force. The CF will be
the same (with the opposite sign) as the gravitational pull at the Earth's center.

Since the CF is a constant force, it can't describe the two bulges in opposite
directions. It is gravity itself that varies with distance. The differential force
can be derived either by subtracting the average gravitational force which causes the
freefall at the center of the Earth, or it can be derived by adding the centrifugal
force. Since the two are the same, except for the sign, the math is identical.

So take your pick, either explanation works, and I'm sure there are others. However,
I hope you can appreciate that explanations like "gravity creates the inner bulge,
centrifugal force creates the outer bulge" makes physicists wince!







Scout October 16th 04 03:16 PM

"Jeff Morris" wrote
[snip]
So take your pick, either explanation works, and I'm sure there are
others. However,
I hope you can appreciate that explanations like "gravity creates the
inner bulge,
centrifugal force creates the outer bulge" makes physicists wince!


Yes, I can, as I've watched my physics teaching partner wince quite a bit
this week as we discussed this thread. He was quick to cover our whiteboard
with formulas and drawings. It's an interesting thread though, and
notwithstanding my oversimplified analogies, I've learned a lot from it. By
the way, I saw that same wince from a black history professor when I
suggested that the Civil War was fought to free the slaves, and then again
when I suggested to an ancient lit professor that The Odyssey has all the
earmarks of an Arnold Schwarzenegger movie. Probably explains why I like a
good fart joke.
Scout



Jeff Morris October 16th 04 04:36 PM

"Scout" wrote in message
...
"Jeff Morris" wrote
[snip]
So take your pick, either explanation works, and I'm sure there are others. However,
I hope you can appreciate that explanations like "gravity creates the inner bulge,
centrifugal force creates the outer bulge" makes physicists wince!


Yes, I can, as I've watched my physics teaching partner wince quite a bit this week as we
discussed this thread. He was quick to cover our whiteboard with formulas and drawings. It's an
interesting thread though, and notwithstanding my oversimplified analogies, I've learned a lot
from it. By the way, I saw that same wince from a black history professor when I suggested that
the Civil War was fought to free the slaves, and then again when I suggested to an ancient lit
professor that The Odyssey has all the earmarks of an Arnold Schwarzenegger movie. Probably
explains why I like a good fart joke.


Sort of like the wince I got from an African-American/Cherokee friend when I asked him how he was
going to celebrate Columbus Day?

jeff

ps So how does your partner rate my explanations?



Scout October 16th 04 05:03 PM

"Jeff Morris" wrote
[snip] Sort of like the wince I got from an African-American/Cherokee
friend when I asked him how he was going to celebrate Columbus Day?

Ouch!

ps So how does your partner rate my explanations?

The great mediator saw truth in both models. He was a bit more forgiving of
my "impellor in a great centrifugal pump" analogy, but slapped my wrist for
saying this about centrifugal force: if it feels real, mustn't it be real?
By the time he was done, my head was spinning and yet somehow my brain
seemed to be bulging (quite appropriately) out of both sides of my head. In
the end he called me an English teacher, which is his way of slandering me,
and told me my paltry general science achievements were no match for his
superior physics and math skills. I told him he could forget about me taking
him sailing again and he took it all back.
He's never done the newsgroups though, and was quite impressed with the ease
with which like minded folks could debate a worthy topic.
Scout



Peter S/Y Anicula October 16th 04 09:21 PM

Well just to confuse things a bit mo
Even if we only focus on the tide generating potential, there is a
cupple of things that we haven't discussed yet, and one of them has to
do with rotation: "The Coriolis freqency". The other thing one could
include is the "parallax".
I mention this just to make clear that the two models discussed above
both are incomplete.

Peter S/Y Anicula

"Jeff Morris" skrev i en meddelelse
...
"Scout" wrote in message
...
Jeff,
Remember that I first posted that very same sentiment, and even

provided a
graphic. I still believe that to be true, but have modified my

internal
model, giving allowance for the centrifugal force. I'm not a

physicist, but
the way I'm seeing it, there is a middle ground in this

discussion. I'm
curious to know if you're discounting centrifugal force as a

contributor to
the far bulge.
Scout


I've always said that Centrifugal Force can be used as part of the

explanation, as
long as you end up with the same answer. There are several

different ways of looking
at this, all valid. (I hope I can get through this without mangling

the terms too
badly ...)

The problem with Centrifugal Force is that it is a "fictional

force." It is only
needed if you work in a non-inertial, or accelerating reference

frame. If you are in
a car going around a curve, your reference frame is accelerating

towards the center of
the curve, and thus you feel a Centrifugal Force in the opposite

direction. To an
outside observer, the CF doesn't exist, the only force is the car

pulling the
passenger around the turn. The outside observer can analyze the

situation completely
without invoking CF. (The passenger feels CF push him outward, the

observer sees the
car pull the passenger inward.)

In the Earth-Moon system there is gravity pulling both the Earth and

Moon around
curves. Because the gravity acts on all objects, we don't notice

ourselves being
pulled around. The magnitude of the Centrifugal force is to small to

notice, but in
that reference frame it exists. To the outside observer, we're

just in freefall,
being pulled inward by gravity.

The problem with CF arises when you look carefully at the math. One

pitfall Nav fell
into was trying to calculate CF as a function that varies with the

distance to the
barycenter. However, all points on the Earth do not rotate around

the barycenter,
only the center does. Other points describe the same circle around

nearby points, so
that all points on Earth feel the same Centrifugal Force. (This is

a tough concept to
explain in words; its easier to do it graphically. Consider a plate

wobbling around a
point but with no rotation - each point on the plate describes the

same circle.)

BTW, Nav provided two commonly used formulas, one for gravity and

the other for CF.
Although they look quite different, you should appreciate that they

are the same,
since the angular velocity is determined by the gravitational force.

The CF will be
the same (with the opposite sign) as the gravitational pull at the

Earth's center.

Since the CF is a constant force, it can't describe the two bulges

in opposite
directions. It is gravity itself that varies with distance. The

differential force
can be derived either by subtracting the average gravitational force

which causes the
freefall at the center of the Earth, or it can be derived by adding

the centrifugal
force. Since the two are the same, except for the sign, the math is

identical.

So take your pick, either explanation works, and I'm sure there are

others. However,
I hope you can appreciate that explanations like "gravity creates

the inner bulge,
centrifugal force creates the outer bulge" makes physicists wince!









Scout October 16th 04 09:28 PM

mission accomplished! lol
Scout

"Peter S/Y Anicula" wrote
Well just to confuse things a bit mo
Even if we only focus on the tide generating potential, there is a
cupple of things that we haven't discussed yet, and one of them has to
do with rotation: "The Coriolis freqency". The other thing one could
include is the "parallax".
I mention this just to make clear that the two models discussed above
both are incomplete.




Thom Stewart October 16th 04 09:47 PM

Scout,

I was determined not to re-enter this discussion, except to needle Donal
about the 1/4 point.

Your post about your physic teacher gave me enough enjoyment to venture
another post.

Your experience brought back memoirs of mine own days in High School
with my own Physic Teacher about Tides and a Commercial Clammer who help
me learn sailing. By the time I got finished, I had more faith in the
Clammer. He lived in a shed on a float in the middle of the harbor. He
was fond of the booze an when he know enough about any subject to
satisfy himself, then he was satisfied.

His explanation of the Tide, given to me willingly. was; and I quote.
The Moon causes the Tides. It cause high tide because of its pull on
earth, which screws up the pull between the earth and the Sun. Since the
Tides are made up of water, the higher water, under the Moon creates
less water on the other side of the Earth or low Tide. Since the Tide
are water and the pull is less the farther away from the Moon they are
not as high on the side of the earth facing the moon but higher than the
water on the side of the Earth facing away away from the Moon. People
call this difference 1/2 tide. The height of High Tide and Low Tide
along with 1/2 Tides are affected by the Phase of the Moon.

The difference of the location and of the time of tides are caused by
the differences of the rotation of the Earth and the time of revolution
and direction of the Moon

This is explanation has served me well for over 60 years.

Ole Thom


Thom Stewart October 16th 04 09:58 PM

Scout,

I forgot to mention my old friend. Frank, also told me he had Tide
Tables and Almanics for the heigth and times of the tides and the
position on the Moon.

Ole Thom


Jeff Morris October 16th 04 10:34 PM

You're absolutely correct. There are numerous effects we're not considering. We've
only attempted to understand the primary cause of two tides a day. Even then, the
math is a bit more complex than the simple formulas we've used.

The parallax effects are certainly significant - they are caused non-circular orbits.
And then there's Lunar declination to fold in.

Of course, spring and neap must be considered - does everyone know when Syzygy is?

And these are just the global effect - there's a whole litany of local effects to
consider. Or you can keep a copy of Eldridge or Reed's handy.



"Peter S/Y Anicula" wrote in message
...
Well just to confuse things a bit mo
Even if we only focus on the tide generating potential, there is a
cupple of things that we haven't discussed yet, and one of them has to
do with rotation: "The Coriolis freqency". The other thing one could
include is the "parallax".
I mention this just to make clear that the two models discussed above
both are incomplete.

Peter S/Y Anicula

"Jeff Morris" skrev i en meddelelse
...
"Scout" wrote in message
...
Jeff,
Remember that I first posted that very same sentiment, and even

provided a
graphic. I still believe that to be true, but have modified my

internal
model, giving allowance for the centrifugal force. I'm not a

physicist, but
the way I'm seeing it, there is a middle ground in this

discussion. I'm
curious to know if you're discounting centrifugal force as a

contributor to
the far bulge.
Scout


I've always said that Centrifugal Force can be used as part of the

explanation, as
long as you end up with the same answer. There are several

different ways of looking
at this, all valid. (I hope I can get through this without mangling

the terms too
badly ...)

The problem with Centrifugal Force is that it is a "fictional

force." It is only
needed if you work in a non-inertial, or accelerating reference

frame. If you are in
a car going around a curve, your reference frame is accelerating

towards the center of
the curve, and thus you feel a Centrifugal Force in the opposite

direction. To an
outside observer, the CF doesn't exist, the only force is the car

pulling the
passenger around the turn. The outside observer can analyze the

situation completely
without invoking CF. (The passenger feels CF push him outward, the

observer sees the
car pull the passenger inward.)

In the Earth-Moon system there is gravity pulling both the Earth and

Moon around
curves. Because the gravity acts on all objects, we don't notice

ourselves being
pulled around. The magnitude of the Centrifugal force is to small to

notice, but in
that reference frame it exists. To the outside observer, we're

just in freefall,
being pulled inward by gravity.

The problem with CF arises when you look carefully at the math. One

pitfall Nav fell
into was trying to calculate CF as a function that varies with the

distance to the
barycenter. However, all points on the Earth do not rotate around

the barycenter,
only the center does. Other points describe the same circle around

nearby points, so
that all points on Earth feel the same Centrifugal Force. (This is

a tough concept to
explain in words; its easier to do it graphically. Consider a plate

wobbling around a
point but with no rotation - each point on the plate describes the

same circle.)

BTW, Nav provided two commonly used formulas, one for gravity and

the other for CF.
Although they look quite different, you should appreciate that they

are the same,
since the angular velocity is determined by the gravitational force.

The CF will be
the same (with the opposite sign) as the gravitational pull at the

Earth's center.

Since the CF is a constant force, it can't describe the two bulges

in opposite
directions. It is gravity itself that varies with distance. The

differential force
can be derived either by subtracting the average gravitational force

which causes the
freefall at the center of the Earth, or it can be derived by adding

the centrifugal
force. Since the two are the same, except for the sign, the math is

identical.

So take your pick, either explanation works, and I'm sure there are

others. However,
I hope you can appreciate that explanations like "gravity creates

the inner bulge,
centrifugal force creates the outer bulge" makes physicists wince!











Scout October 16th 04 11:02 PM

Thanks Thom,
thank God for those ol' salty guys ~ they always manage to keep it real!
Scout

"Thom Stewart" wrote
[snip]
Your post about your physic teacher gave me enough enjoyment to venture
another post.

Your experience brought back memoirs of mine own days in High School
with my own Physic Teacher about Tides and a Commercial Clammer who help
me learn sailing. By the time I got finished, I had more faith in the
Clammer. He lived in a shed on a float in the middle of the harbor. He
was fond of the booze an when he know enough about any subject to
satisfy himself, then he was satisfied.




Jeff Morris October 17th 04 02:18 AM

"Donal" wrote in message
...
It doesn't "know" anything. Because the Earth and Moon are an "orbiting

pair," as you
say, they are falling towards each other. Because the gravitational field

varies, the
near side falls faster than the middle; and the far side falls slower.


Very neat! However, your view seems to be a little bit simplistic.


It is simple. That's because there really isn't that much going on (at this level).
Just the pull of gravity, which varies with distance. Everything else is red herring.



Why should a solid fall more slowly than a fluid in a gravitational field?


Why is there any difference? They both feel the same force. And, the land surfaces
are distorted by the tides, roughly a meter, IIRC. To be honest, I could never figure
out if the water is distorted more for some reason (its lighter?), or is in simply
free to move, and thus get involved in the local shoreline effects. (That is, is the
tide in the middle of the ocean the same as in the middle of a continent?)

If your theory was correct, then there wouldn't be any tide at all.


No, the force distorts both the land and the water. These distortions are the two
bulges. In fact, because there is a difference in force, there must be some
distortion - how much is a detail for the engineers!


You seem to be ignoring momentum.


Nope. If you use the "free fall" approach, momentum isn't really a factor in
computing the force, though I suppose it gets involved when you calculate the actual
motion. You sort of consider momentum with the centrifugal force approach, but you
don't calculate it because the CF gets cancelled out.

Consider an astronaut space walking outside a space station. They both float
together, feeling no force, although they are both in freefall in their orbit. If the
astronaut moves to a lower orbit, he will feel a stronger pull and be drawn in, unless
he speeds up to compensate. If the astronaut moves to a higher orbit, the force is
reduced. As I said, the force can be calculated without consideration of momentum.

A purist might say momentum is considered because the mass and velocity of the every
object in the system is folded together. And, the pure way force is defined is by how
it changes momentum. But I don't think this is what you're talking about.




Donal October 17th 04 11:52 PM


"Jeff Morris" wrote in message
...
"Donal" wrote in message
...
It doesn't "know" anything. Because the Earth and Moon are an

"orbiting
pair," as you
say, they are falling towards each other. Because the gravitational

field
varies, the
near side falls faster than the middle; and the far side falls slower.


Very neat! However, your view seems to be a little bit simplistic.


It is simple. That's because there really isn't that much going on (at

this level).
Just the pull of gravity, which varies with distance. Everything else is

red herring.



Why should a solid fall more slowly than a fluid in a gravitational

field?

Why is there any difference? They both feel the same force. And, the

land surfaces
are distorted by the tides, roughly a meter, IIRC. To be honest, I could

never figure
out if the water is distorted more for some reason (its lighter?), or is

in simply
free to move, and thus get involved in the local shoreline effects. (That

is, is the
tide in the middle of the ocean the same as in the middle of a continent?)

If your theory was correct, then there wouldn't be any tide at all.


No, the force distorts both the land and the water. These distortions are

the two
bulges. In fact, because there is a difference in force, there must be

some
distortion - how much is a detail for the engineers!


You seem to be ignoring momentum.


Nope. If you use the "free fall" approach, momentum isn't really a factor

in
computing the force, though I suppose it gets involved when you calculate

the actual
motion. You sort of consider momentum with the centrifugal force

approach, but you
don't calculate it because the CF gets cancelled out.

Consider an astronaut space walking outside a space station. They both

float
together, feeling no force, although they are both in freefall in their

orbit. If the
astronaut moves to a lower orbit, he will feel a stronger pull and be

drawn in, unless
he speeds up to compensate. If the astronaut moves to a higher orbit, the

force is
reduced. As I said, the force can be calculated without consideration of

momentum.

I don't understant this. In orbit, momentum is the force that balances the
effect of gravity. Without momentum, your astronaut wouldn't "float" - he
would crash straight into the Earth.

In fact, I think that your use of the word "float" reveals that you don't
understand the situation at all. Your astronaut wouldn't feel any
difference between a free fall orbit and a headlong race into deepest
space, - would he? Furthermore, if he slowed down, then he would still feel
like he was floating -- apart from the temperature, and perhaps the braking
effect of the atmosphere.

This makes me think that the orbiting "free-fall" astronaut doesn't feel
that he is floating at all. He must feel a constant force as his direction
of travel changes. I wonder if this has been documented on the Internet?
What does your physics friend say about this?



A purist might say momentum is considered because the mass and velocity of

the every
object in the system is folded together. And, the pure way force is

defined is by how
it changes momentum. But I don't think this is what you're talking about.



I'm not sure. I'm certainly *not* a purist.


Regards

Donal
--




Jeff Morris October 18th 04 12:53 AM


"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message

Consider an astronaut space walking outside a space station. They both

float
together, feeling no force, although they are both in freefall in their

orbit. If the
astronaut moves to a lower orbit, he will feel a stronger pull and be

drawn in, unless
he speeds up to compensate. If the astronaut moves to a higher orbit, the

force is
reduced. As I said, the force can be calculated without consideration of

momentum.

I don't understant this. In orbit, momentum is the force that balances the
effect of gravity. Without momentum, your astronaut wouldn't "float" - he
would crash straight into the Earth.


Momentum is not a force. You're right that the astronaut has momentum, and that the
force of gravity alters his momentum. In fact, Force is defined by how much it
changes momentum. (Many people learn F=ma; in physics that is normally written as
F=dp/dt, or Force equals the rate of change of momentum with respect to time.)

My point is that you can determine the force on the astronaut without considering his
momentum. To figure out how the force would alter his orbit, you would probably take
momentum into account.

Remember, I'm not trying to calculate the tides, only to show how gravity can cause
two equal size bulges on the Earth.



In fact, I think that your use of the word "float" reveals that you don't
understand the situation at all. Your astronaut wouldn't feel any
difference between a free fall orbit and a headlong race into deepest
space, - would he?


So tell us, what is the difference? Floating in a space station is call "free fall"
because it feels the same as jumping off a cliff.

Furthermore, if he slowed down, then he would still feel
like he was floating -- apart from the temperature, and perhaps the braking
effect of the atmosphere.


Yes, but that's not the point. The point is, if he is in a lower orbit, he
experiences more gravity; in a higher orbit, less gravity. If his speed is not
adjusted to compensate, he will drift further away from the space station. Just like
the tides.


This makes me think that the orbiting "free-fall" astronaut doesn't feel
that he is floating at all.


Haven't you ever seen astronauts floating?

He must feel a constant force as his direction
of travel changes. I wonder if this has been documented on the Internet?


http://science.howstuffworks.com/weightlessness1.htm

What does your physics friend say about this?

He would probably deplore the lack of education in your country.





A purist might say momentum is considered because the mass and velocity of

the every
object in the system is folded together. And, the pure way force is

defined is by how
it changes momentum. But I don't think this is what you're talking about.



I'm not sure. I'm certainly *not* a purist.


Regards

Donal
--






Nav October 18th 04 01:52 AM



Jeff Morris wrote:
No, you never said it wasn't needed, but you did minimize its importance, claiming
that it can't be used alone to predict the tides. You said:

"Even worse, the site then goes on to use the _differential_ expression
to calculate the ratio of forces between the moon and sun!"


Yes that's right for that site. The differential of the gavity equation
does not give a force it gives the rate of chnage of force with
distance. That's basic calculus.

You even produced a bogus formula to support your claim that centrifugal force varies
across the Earth. This would predict a tidal force 65 times stronger than
differential gravity. If that isn't minimalizing differential gravity, I don't know
what is.


Nothing bogus abot F=m r omaga^2. It's high school physics.


It is quite easy to explain the tides without Centrifugal force - I mentioned the
approach in one of my first posts. There is a gravitational force pulling the Earth
and Moon together. This creates an acceleration such that the Earth is in free fall,
and no net force is felt at the Earth's center. However, there is a larger force on
the Moon side, and a smaller force on the far side. Since the average force has been
accounted for it must be subtracted from these two forces, and the smaller force ends
up being the same magnitude as the larger, but in the opposite direction. Hence, two
tidal bulges, both caused solely by gravity.


Jeff, stop a moment and put what you just said into an equation.
According to you subtraction of a constant from both sides of an
inequality makes an equality?




You, however, have claimed that the variation of the centrifugal force from the near
side to the far creates a force that dominates the tides. Your formula predicts a
force 65 times greater than the differential formula, which would seem to create tides
100 feet or more.


That's because you've forgetten that the tiode is due to the difference
between forces -how many times do I have to repeat this????


Your explanation that land masses dampen these tides runs counter
to common experience. And, your formula predicts the Sun's contribution is only 1% of
the Moon's, which is clearly not the case.


No it doen't. It's your miscomprehension about the force balance.

As to your claim that the rotation around the barycenter "powers" the tides, well,
that's not true.


Jeff, don't be hysterical. Of course it's true. Furthermore, the
barycenter is not the same distance from all points on earth so the
centrifugal force varies across the earth.

Here is the equation for the force on a mass m of water on the far side
for a non-rotating earth (to keep it clear):

GmM/(R+r)^2 + GmE/r^2 - m(r+s)omega^2


On the near side:

GmM/(R-r)^2 + GmE/r^2 - m(r-s) omega^2

M is the moon mass, E the earth mass, s the distance from the center of
the earth to the barycenter, omega the angular velocity of the
earth-moon pair G the gravitational constant.


Now look very carefully at the three terms in each equation. The first
two are gravity, the third centrifugal. Two terms are different in both
cases. The gravity term is smaller on the far side and the centrifugal
term is bigger. On the near side the gavity is bigger and the
cenbtrifugal is smaller. That is the proof of my argument.

Cheers


Nav October 18th 04 01:57 AM



Jeff Morris wrote:



Remember, I'm not trying to calculate the tides, only to show how gravity can cause
two equal size bulges on the Earth.



Equal? That'll be hard when it's non-linear. Think about it. Take as
long as you like.

Cheers


Jeff Morris October 18th 04 04:12 AM


"Nav" wrote in message ...


Jeff Morris wrote:
No, you never said it wasn't needed, but you did minimize its importance, claiming
that it can't be used alone to predict the tides. You said:

"Even worse, the site then goes on to use the _differential_ expression
to calculate the ratio of forces between the moon and sun!"


Yes that's right for that site. The differential of the gavity equation
does not give a force it gives the rate of chnage of force with
distance. That's basic calculus.


Simply differentiating the gravitational force is not enough. But the equation
normally given for differential gravity is dimensionally correct.


You even produced a bogus formula to support your claim that centrifugal force

varies
across the Earth. This would predict a tidal force 65 times stronger than
differential gravity. If that isn't minimalizing differential gravity, I don't

know
what is.


Nothing bogus abot F=m r omaga^2. It's high school physics.


That formula is correct. Applying it with a varying "r" is bogus. That's the issue
here, but you haven't noticed it.





It is quite easy to explain the tides without Centrifugal force - I mentioned the
approach in one of my first posts. There is a gravitational force pulling the

Earth
and Moon together. This creates an acceleration such that the Earth is in free

fall,
and no net force is felt at the Earth's center. However, there is a larger force

on
the Moon side, and a smaller force on the far side. Since the average force has

been
accounted for it must be subtracted from these two forces, and the smaller force

ends
up being the same magnitude as the larger, but in the opposite direction. Hence,

two
tidal bulges, both caused solely by gravity.


Jeff, stop a moment and put what you just said into an equation.
According to you subtraction of a constant from both sides of an
inequality makes an equality?


I have no idea what you're saying.

If the force at the center is X, and on the near side is X+D, and on the far side is
X-D, then if you subtract the central force, the near side is D and the far side
is -D.






You, however, have claimed that the variation of the centrifugal force from the

near
side to the far creates a force that dominates the tides. Your formula predicts a
force 65 times greater than the differential formula, which would seem to create

tides
100 feet or more.


That's because you've forgetten that the tiode is due to the difference
between forces -how many times do I have to repeat this????


I just tried to follow all your instructions. You challenged me to work the math, I
did, it produced bogus answers. The difference in the centrifugal force that your
equation predicts is 65 times more that the difference in the gravitational force, so
subtracting still won't help much. Why don't you work out the math? And don't forget
to do it for the Sun also.



Your explanation that land masses dampen these tides runs counter
to common experience. And, your formula predicts the Sun's contribution is only

1% of
the Moon's, which is clearly not the case.


No it doen't. It's your miscomprehension about the force balance.


I'm just reporting the numbers your equation predicts.



As to your claim that the rotation around the barycenter "powers" the tides, well,
that's not true.


Jeff, don't be hysterical. Of course it's true. Furthermore, the
barycenter is not the same distance from all points on earth so the
centrifugal force varies across the earth.


This is your basic mistake. Even the web site you pointed to for support explicitly
says this is not true.
Let me repeat it again
http://www.co-ops.nos.noaa.gov/restles3.html

"While space does not permit here, it may be graphically demonstrated that, for such a
case of revolution without rotation as above enumerated, any point on the earth will
describe a circle which will have the same radius as the radius of revolution of the
center-of-mass of the earth around the barycenter. Thus, in Fig. 1, the magnitude of
the centrifugal force produced by the revolution of the earth and moon around their
common center of mass (G) is the same at point A or B or any other point on or beneath
the earth's surface. Any of these values is also equal to the centrifugal force
produced at the center-of-mass (C) by its revolution around the barycenter. This fact
is indicated in Fig. 2 by the equal lengths of the thin arrows (representing the
centrifugal force Fc) at points A, C, and B, respectively."

it continues with:
"While the effect of this centrifugal force is constant for all positions on the
earth, the effect of the external gravitational force produced by another astronomical
body may be different at different positions on the earth because the magnitude of the
gravitational force exerted varies with the distance of the attracting body."

Go on. Read it, think about it. You were quick to cite this page when you thought it
supported you.



Here is the equation for the force on a mass m of water on the far side
for a non-rotating earth (to keep it clear):

GmM/(R+r)^2 + GmE/r^2 - m(r+s)omega^2


On the near side:

GmM/(R-r)^2 + GmE/r^2 - m(r-s) omega^2

M is the moon mass, E the earth mass, s the distance from the center of
the earth to the barycenter, omega the angular velocity of the
earth-moon pair G the gravitational constant.


Nope. This is incorrect. The proper equations a

Farside:
GmM/(R+r)^2 + GmE/r^2 - m s omega^2

On the near side:
GmM/(R-r)^2 + GmE/r^2 - m s omega^2

Further, since GmE/r^2 = m s omega^2, we are left simply with:
Farside: GmM/(R+r)^2
On the near side: GmM/(R-r)^2

This leads to the traditional differential equation 2GmMr/R^3 as shown in
http://mb-soft.com/public/tides.html


Now look very carefully at the three terms in each equation. The first
two are gravity, the third centrifugal. Two terms are different in both
cases.


Nope. Only one term is different.

The gravity term is smaller on the far side and the centrifugal
term is bigger. On the near side the gavity is bigger and the
cenbtrifugal is smaller. That is the proof of my argument.


The proof fails because of a faulty assumption. Sorry Nav, Centrifugal Force is
constant. You can use it if you chose, but it doesn't really change the math and
isn't particularly interesting. The part of the equation that actually produces the
two tides is the differential gravity.



Jeff Morris October 18th 04 02:06 PM

Yes, I should have said "roughly equal." But don't your equations show a huge
difference between the near and far side tides caused by the barycenter being closer
to the near side? Shouldn't that be a clue that something is amiss in your theory?


"Nav" wrote in message ...


Jeff Morris wrote:



Remember, I'm not trying to calculate the tides, only to show how gravity can

cause
two equal size bulges on the Earth.



Equal? That'll be hard when it's non-linear. Think about it. Take as
long as you like.

Cheers




Donal October 18th 04 11:44 PM


"Jeff Morris" wrote in message
...

"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message

Consider an astronaut space walking outside a space station. They

both
float
together, feeling no force, although they are both in freefall in

their
orbit. If the
astronaut moves to a lower orbit, he will feel a stronger pull and be

drawn in, unless
he speeds up to compensate. If the astronaut moves to a higher orbit,

the
force is
reduced. As I said, the force can be calculated without consideration

of
momentum.

I don't understant this. In orbit, momentum is the force that balances

the
effect of gravity. Without momentum, your astronaut wouldn't "float" -

he
would crash straight into the Earth.


Momentum is not a force. You're right that the astronaut has momentum,

and that the
force of gravity alters his momentum. In fact, Force is defined by how

much it
changes momentum. (Many people learn F=ma; in physics that is normally

written as
F=dp/dt, or Force equals the rate of change of momentum with respect to

time.)

Ok. What force opposes gravity so that a body may remain in orbit?


My point is that you can determine the force on the astronaut without

considering his
momentum.


In which case, there must be a "force" that is counteracting the effect of
gravity. After all, gravity is trying to pull the orbiting Astronaut
straight towards Earth. There must be another force that is opposing
gravity.



To figure out how the force would alter his orbit, you would probably take
momentum into account.

Remember, I'm not trying to calculate the tides, only to show how gravity

can cause
two equal size bulges on the Earth.


Do you think that centrifugal force plays any part? If so, what do you
think the ratio is between the centrifugal and differential gravity forces?




In fact, I think that your use of the word "float" reveals that you

don't
understand the situation at all. Your astronaut wouldn't feel any
difference between a free fall orbit and a headlong race into deepest
space, - would he?


So tell us, what is the difference?


Acceleration.

Floating in a space station is call "free fall"
because it feels the same as jumping off a cliff.

Furthermore, if he slowed down, then he would still feel
like he was floating -- apart from the temperature, and perhaps the

braking
effect of the atmosphere.


Yes, but that's not the point. The point is, if he is in a lower orbit,

he
experiences more gravity; in a higher orbit, less gravity. If his speed

is not
adjusted to compensate, he will drift further away from the space station.

Just like
the tides.


This makes me think that the orbiting "free-fall" astronaut doesn't feel
that he is floating at all.


Haven't you ever seen astronauts floating?


Yes.... but they are constantly changing direction.... and therefor they
should be aware of the effects of acceleration.



He must feel a constant force as his direction
of travel changes. I wonder if this has been documented on the

Internet?

http://science.howstuffworks.com/weightlessness1.htm


That is a very simplistic explanation. It refers to the fact that the
astronauts will feel the acceleration at take-off, and yet it doesn't seem
to understand that a change of direction is also acceleration.

We humans can detect acceleration. If you sit in an automobile with your
eyes closed, then you can feel an increase or decrease in speed .... or a
change of direction!! As the astronauts are subjected to a constant change
of direction, I suspect that they might not feel that they are completely
free-floating.



What does your physics friend say about this?

He would probably deplore the lack of education in your country.


Ask him anyway!

Perhaps, if you allowed him to read the thread, he might be amazed at your
lack of reading ability. After all, I've already explained that I gave up
Physics at an early stage.


Regards


Donal
--




Jeff Morris October 19th 04 01:41 AM


"Donal" wrote in message
...
I don't understant this. In orbit, momentum is the force that balances

the
effect of gravity. Without momentum, your astronaut wouldn't "float" -

he
would crash straight into the Earth.


Momentum is not a force. You're right that the astronaut has momentum,

and that the
force of gravity alters his momentum. In fact, Force is defined by how

much it
changes momentum. (Many people learn F=ma; in physics that is normally

written as
F=dp/dt, or Force equals the rate of change of momentum with respect to

time.)

Ok. What force opposes gravity so that a body may remain in orbit?


Nothing. The body remains in orbit because it has enough forward velocity (momentum
also, but its the velocity that counts) so that while it "falls" into the Earth, the
forward velocity keeps the body from hitting the Earth. For a low orbit, we normally
thing of circular orbits, but for high orbits they can be quite eccentic. If the
Earth were a "point source" it would only take a small velocity to stay in orbit. Of
course, there are many ways to calculate this - somtimes its done in terms of
"energy," other times as "delta V" so if you want to say the momentum of the body
keeps it from falling into the Earth, that's OK.




My point is that you can determine the force on the astronaut without

considering his
momentum.


In which case, there must be a "force" that is counteracting the effect of
gravity. After all, gravity is trying to pull the orbiting Astronaut
straight towards Earth. There must be another force that is opposing
gravity.



See above. If the body were motionless (WRT Earth), it would fall directly in. But
if it has any velocity, its has a chance of missing it. The reason why I say velocity
is important, and not momentum, is that two bodies of different mass (and hence,
different momentum) will float together in orbit. Of course, if you want to calculate
the amount of fuel to burn, momentum becomes important.

On Earth, we always have air resistance, and other forms of friction, so momentum is
more significant.




To figure out how the force would alter his orbit, you would probably take
momentum into account.

Remember, I'm not trying to calculate the tides, only to show how gravity

can cause
two equal size bulges on the Earth.


Do you think that centrifugal force plays any part? If so, what do you
think the ratio is between the centrifugal and differential gravity forces?


It is possible to look at the problem without considering Centrifugal Force. However,
even if you use CF, it is a constant, and equal to the net gravitation force. So if
it helps to expain how there can be a force away from the moon, that's OK, but you
must remember that it is the gravitation force that varies, so that's where the
interesting math comes from.





In fact, I think that your use of the word "float" reveals that you

don't
understand the situation at all. Your astronaut wouldn't feel any
difference between a free fall orbit and a headlong race into deepest
space, - would he?


So tell us, what is the difference?


Acceleration.


No, the acceleration is the same, more or less. (Not counting the difference in
distance from the Earth, or air resistance, etc.) The only real difference is that
the astronaut has enough velocity (hopefully) to miss the Earth as he falls.



Floating in a space station is call "free fall"
because it feels the same as jumping off a cliff.

Furthermore, if he slowed down, then he would still feel
like he was floating -- apart from the temperature, and perhaps the

braking
effect of the atmosphere.


Yes, but that's not the point. The point is, if he is in a lower orbit,

he
experiences more gravity; in a higher orbit, less gravity. If his speed

is not
adjusted to compensate, he will drift further away from the space station.

Just like
the tides.


This makes me think that the orbiting "free-fall" astronaut doesn't feel
that he is floating at all.


Haven't you ever seen astronauts floating?


Yes.... but they are constantly changing direction.... and therefor they
should be aware of the effects of acceleration.


I must admit this subtlety has perplexed me - clearly the don't feel the G force,
since it the same as a car in a tight turn. But I keep thinking it should be
detectable, if only because the path is curving.



He must feel a constant force as his direction
of travel changes. I wonder if this has been documented on the

Internet?

http://science.howstuffworks.com/weightlessness1.htm


That is a very simplistic explanation. It refers to the fact that the
astronauts will feel the acceleration at take-off, and yet it doesn't seem
to understand that a change of direction is also acceleration.

We humans can detect acceleration. If you sit in an automobile with your
eyes closed, then you can feel an increase or decrease in speed .... or a
change of direction!! As the astronauts are subjected to a constant change
of direction, I suspect that they might not feel that they are completely
free-floating.


Of course, from a General Relativity, Gravity Well point of view, the obital path is a
straight line in curved space. I should know the answer here - let me cogitate ...



What does your physics friend say about this?

He would probably deplore the lack of education in your country.


Ask him anyway!


Actually, it was Scout's friend. However, you should remember I majored in physics
and worked for NASA doing spacecraft navigation. I may be rusty now, but 25 years ago
I really knew this stuf!



Perhaps, if you allowed him to read the thread, he might be amazed at your
lack of reading ability. After all, I've already explained that I gave up
Physics at an early stage.


I haven't forgotton that. It was just a little dig since usually you Brits complain
about our sorry education.



Nav October 19th 04 02:22 AM



Jeff Morris wrote:



I must admit this subtlety has perplexed me - clearly the don't feel the G force,
since it the same as a car in a tight turn. But I keep thinking it should be
detectable, if only because the path is curving.


(1) How tight is the turn and (2) how big is the imbalance between
centrifugal and garvitational forces for such a small body?



Of course, from a General Relativity, Gravity Well point of view, the obital path is a
straight line in curved space. I should know the answer here - let me cogitate ...


Eat some bran? :-P

Cheers


Donal October 19th 04 11:16 PM


"Jeff Morris" wrote in message
...

"Donal" wrote in message
...


In fact, I think that your use of the word "float" reveals that you

don't
understand the situation at all. Your astronaut wouldn't feel any
difference between a free fall orbit and a headlong race into

deepest
space, - would he?

So tell us, what is the difference?


Acceleration.


No, the acceleration is the same, more or less. (Not counting the

difference in
distance from the Earth, or air resistance, etc.) The only real

difference is that
the astronaut has enough velocity (hopefully) to miss the Earth as he

falls.


That was a very revealing answer.

Earlier in the thread you were confident enough about your position to
question my lack of education.

Now you seem to think that an object travelling at "x" miles an hour in a
straight line ("headlong into space") has the same acceleration as a body
travelling at "x" miles an hour in orbit.

It's probably time that you consulted your physics partner. Before you let
him read what you have written, you should make sure that there is a
cloakroom near the PC. Otherwise, have a potty close at hand - because he
is really going to **** himself when he reads your words.



Haven't you ever seen astronauts floating?


Yes.... but they are constantly changing direction.... and therefor they
should be aware of the effects of acceleration.


I must admit this subtlety has perplexed me - clearly the don't feel the G

force,
since it the same as a car in a tight turn. But I keep thinking it should

be
detectable, if only because the path is curving.


Yeah. It's called acceleration - a bit like G-force.

Please note that "a bit" = "exactly" in European understatement.




He must feel a constant force as his direction
of travel changes. I wonder if this has been documented on the

Internet?

http://science.howstuffworks.com/weightlessness1.htm


That is a very simplistic explanation. It refers to the fact that the
astronauts will feel the acceleration at take-off, and yet it doesn't

seem
to understand that a change of direction is also acceleration.

We humans can detect acceleration. If you sit in an automobile with

your
eyes closed, then you can feel an increase or decrease in speed .... or

a
change of direction!! As the astronauts are subjected to a constant

change
of direction, I suspect that they might not feel that they are

completely
free-floating.


Of course, from a General Relativity, Gravity Well point of view, the

obital path is a
straight line in curved space. I should know the answer here - let me

cogitate ...

No, you don't know the answer. Trust me. Despite my dreadful education, I
am confident that someone who doesn't understand the basic principles of
acceleration is incapable of getting their head around the TGR. Cogitation
would be a complete waste of your time.





What does your physics friend say about this?
He would probably deplore the lack of education in your country.


Ask him anyway!


Actually, it was Scout's friend. However, you should remember I majored

in physics
and worked for NASA doing spacecraft navigation. I may be rusty now, but

25 years ago
I really knew this stuf!


GULP!!!

So why do you not seem to understand the difference between "velocity" and
"speed"?





Perhaps, if you allowed him to read the thread, he might be amazed at

your
lack of reading ability. After all, I've already explained that I gave

up
Physics at an early stage.


I haven't forgotton that. It was just a little dig since usually you

Brits complain
about our sorry education.


Little digs are very welcome. I appreciate a good insult - and calling me
"you Brits" is definitelay a reasonable insult. You're not lagging too far
behind Joe! He called me a Brit about six months ago.


Regards


Donal
--




Jeff Morris October 20th 04 12:40 AM

"Donal" wrote in message
...

"Jeff Morris" wrote in message
...

"Donal" wrote in message
...


In fact, I think that your use of the word "float" reveals that you
don't
understand the situation at all. Your astronaut wouldn't feel any
difference between a free fall orbit and a headlong race into

deepest
space, - would he?

So tell us, what is the difference?

Acceleration.


No, the acceleration is the same, more or less. (Not counting the

difference in
distance from the Earth, or air resistance, etc.) The only real

difference is that
the astronaut has enough velocity (hopefully) to miss the Earth as he

falls.


That was a very revealing answer.

Earlier in the thread you were confident enough about your position to
question my lack of education.

Now you seem to think that an object travelling at "x" miles an hour in a
straight line ("headlong into space") has the same acceleration as a body
travelling at "x" miles an hour in orbit.


Actually, I was saying that any body under the influence of Earth's gravity will
"feel" the same force, more or less. It doesn't matter whether its falling off a
cliff, in orbit, or leaving orbit into space. The pull of the Earth is the same,
adjusting of course, for the distance.

It turns out that most non-technically inclined people think that these are three
completely different situations (as they are, in some respects) but in all three the
body is being accelerated by gravity exactly the same.

Sorry Donal, that's physics. If you had taken a physics course, you might understand
that. Your continued rant is making you look rather silly.




It's probably time that you consulted your physics partner. Before you let
him read what you have written, you should make sure that there is a
cloakroom near the PC. Otherwise, have a potty close at hand - because he
is really going to **** himself when he reads your words.


Actually, my partner was given a PhD in Astrophysics only if he promised to continue
as a programmer.

How about my former boss, he won the Nobel Prize in Physics a few years ago.





Haven't you ever seen astronauts floating?

Yes.... but they are constantly changing direction.... and therefor they
should be aware of the effects of acceleration.


I must admit this subtlety has perplexed me - clearly the don't feel the G

force,
since it the same as a car in a tight turn. But I keep thinking it should

be
detectable, if only because the path is curving.


Yeah. It's called acceleration - a bit like G-force.

Please note that "a bit" = "exactly" in European understatement.




He must feel a constant force as his direction
of travel changes. I wonder if this has been documented on the
Internet?

http://science.howstuffworks.com/weightlessness1.htm

That is a very simplistic explanation. It refers to the fact that the
astronauts will feel the acceleration at take-off, and yet it doesn't

seem
to understand that a change of direction is also acceleration.

We humans can detect acceleration. If you sit in an automobile with

your
eyes closed, then you can feel an increase or decrease in speed .... or

a
change of direction!! As the astronauts are subjected to a constant

change
of direction, I suspect that they might not feel that they are

completely
free-floating.


Of course, from a General Relativity, Gravity Well point of view, the

obital path is a
straight line in curved space. I should know the answer here - let me

cogitate ...

No, you don't know the answer. Trust me. Despite my dreadful education, I
am confident that someone who doesn't understand the basic principles of
acceleration is incapable of getting their head around the TGR. Cogitation
would be a complete waste of your time.


OK, why don't you explain to us? How does someone in orbit determine they are
travelling a curved path. No fair using outside references. No fair looking for
effects over time. What sort of device will instantaneously tell you the local
gravitational field? I'm not saying its impossible, but its not obvious.








What does your physics friend say about this?
He would probably deplore the lack of education in your country.

Ask him anyway!


Actually, it was Scout's friend. However, you should remember I majored

in physics
and worked for NASA doing spacecraft navigation. I may be rusty now, but

25 years ago
I really knew this stuf!


GULP!!!

So why do you not seem to understand the difference between "velocity" and
"speed"?


Where did I talk about that??? You're losing it Donal.

So, please explain to all of us: what is the difference between velocity and speed,
and how was that relevent to anything I said?








Perhaps, if you allowed him to read the thread, he might be amazed at

your
lack of reading ability. After all, I've already explained that I gave

up
Physics at an early stage.


I haven't forgotton that. It was just a little dig since usually you

Brits complain
about our sorry education.


Little digs are very welcome. I appreciate a good insult - and calling me
"you Brits" is definitelay a reasonable insult. You're not lagging too far
behind Joe! He called me a Brit about six months ago.


Oh, sorry, I forgot. That explains your lack of education.








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